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Exam Code: COG-642
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos 10 BI Scorecard Developer)

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NO.1 What directory contains log files needed to troubleshoot problems importing data?
A. installation_location/logs/MetricStorelnstall
B. installation_location/logs/MetricMaintenance
C. installation_location/logs/MetricUpgradePackage
D. installation_location/logs/MetricStoreUpgrade
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which statement is true about staging tables?
A. Staging tables map to Data ManagerTables
B. Staging tables map to tab-delimited files
C. Staging tables map to tables in the data warehouse
D. Staging tables map to tables in the content store
Answer: B

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NO.3 A tab-delimited file with a cmo extension can be used to create what type of object?
A. Scorecards
B. Metric types
C. Calendar levels
D. Permissions
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which activities can only be performed by the Metric Store Administrator?
A. Set policies.
B. Create the root scorecard.
C. Run import and export options.
D. Add links to a CognosBI report.
Answer: C

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NO.5 What must be done to load the data successfully into Metric Studio using structured query language
(SQL) scripts?
A. Perform the task Recalculate metric store derived values after each script execution.
B. Perform the task Import data from files into staging area after each script execution
C. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the content store.
D. Structure the query language to map data from the relational database to the staging tables
Answer: D

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NO.6 How would the scorecard developer delete the Marketing scorecard and move its children under the
Corporate scorecard.?
A. In the user interface, drag the children to the Corporate scorecard and then delete the Marketing
scorecard.
B. In the user interface, mark the Marketing scorecard for deletion, drag the Corporate scorecard and run
re-calculate metrics derived values.
C. In the .cmo file, re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
D. In the .cmdfile. re-assign the parent to the children scorecard and then mark the Marketing scorecard
for deletion.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator attempted to transfer metric values from the staging area into the metric store.
However, not all of the metrics were populated with expected values. In which table can the administrator
locate the rejected rows for review, correction, and reloading?
A. KPI_VALUE_STAGE_REJECTS
B. OBJECT_STAGE_REJECTS
C. METRIC_TYPE_STAGE_REJECTS
D. OBJECT_NOTE_STAGE_REJECTS
Answer: A

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NO.8 A tab-delimited file with a cmm extension contains what type of objects?
A. Metrics
B. Metric types
C. Metric values
D. Import sources
Answer: B

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NO.9 A user needs to update target values ONLY for:
Americas Return quantity %
Americas Return quantity % Defective product
Americas Return quantity % Incomplete product
What minimum permissions MUST be applied on the objects for that user?
A. Write target values permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor
scorecards.
B. Write permissions to the three metrics and traverse permissions to all ancestor scorecards.
C. Write target values permissions to the three metrics and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
D. Write permissions to the Americas scorecard and read permissions to all ancestor scorecards
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which tile extension must be used on the tab-delimited file that defines relationships between objects?
A. .cmo
B. .cmr
C. .cml
D. .cmm
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-163
Exam Name: IBM (Infrastructure Sales Leader V1)

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NO.1 The board of a large regional hospital has just approved awarding you the purchase order for a server
and storage virtualization project. You have been working for the last year to develop the solution and had
presented the final proposal to the CFO the previous month. The project is to begin within 45 days of
receipt of the P O. Which of the following would be the next logical step?
A. Review the payment milestones with the customer accounts payable department
B. Immediately begin reviewing resumes to hire additional technical staff in order to insure success of the
project
C. Schedule a meeting with the previously defined project manager and technical delivery teams leaders
that will be responsible for project
D. Meet with the customer's key decision makers over dinner within the next 30 days to review the
implementation plan
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer executive is very interested in IBM's virtualization strategy and has asked you to articulate
the main theme. Which of the following defines IBM's virtualization strategy?
A. Specially priced combinations of IBM servers, storage and software designed for optimization in
specific industries
B. A group of IBM server products and middleware that allow service oriented architecture (SOA) across
platforms
C. It is a set of technologies and capabilities that span servers, storage, network, operating system and
higher-level, system-management functions
D. A set of policies and procedures for IT service level management to reduce system administration
through automation
Answer: C

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NO.3 When selling a complex virtualization solution to a client, IBM recommends performing what type of
review?
A. Technical and Delivery Assessment (TDA)
B. Review of Contracts and Plans (RCP)
C. Solutions Guarantee Review (SGR)
D. Solutions Pricing Review (SPR)
Answer: A

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NO.4 A customer is concerned about virtualization and fears managing a virtualized environment. Which of
the following is an answer to this objection?
A. Use Tivoli provisioning and monitoring software
B. Increased redundancy
C. Lower TCO
D. Use WebSphere Process Server
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following are typically the top two benefits that customers anticipate from server
virtualization?
A. Increased utilization and lower cost
B. Lower software license costs and fewer applications
C. Lower utilization and higher availability
D. Increased utilization and application performance variability
Answer: D

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NO.6 A customer has workloads which have different peak demands at different times, and
overcommitted memory on a system with several partitions. The CIO has heard that the primary benefit of
Active Memory Sharing is maximizing overall memory utilization on the system and wants to include this
in plans to upgrade the system to POWER7. Which PowerVM edition supports Active Memory Sharing?
A. Expert Edition
B. Express Edition
C. Standard Edition
D. Enterprise Edition
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer has five different departments with about 100 servers in each of those departments. The
customer recognizes the savings that will occur from virtualization and wants to complete the project
quickly and eliminate excess servers and storage as soon as possible. Which of the following is the most
logical approach to this project?
A. Virtualize servers with internal storage first
B. Virtualize the largest servers first
C. Virtualize the most significant applications first
D. Virtualize one department at a time
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are talking to the CEO of a large enterprise and he has asked, from a business point of view what
does virtualization provide? Which of the following best describes that business value to the CEO.?
A. Maximize utilization of business computing and storage assets, reduce time to set up new applications
B. Improve CPU utilization by replacing single windows servers with blades
C. Reduce network port counts with VLAN tagging
D. Consolidate storage resources into a set of tiered pool
Answer: A

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NO.9 A large medical company is planning a virtualization and consolidation project to replace one third of
their current servers. The servers unaffected include z10, Linux, and Windows. Which of the following is
the business value of a Virtualization Engine?
A. Customers have access to resources though web services using a resource model
B. Customers have a methodical approach to virtualization starting points and project expansion
consistently
C. Customers gather information about business resources associated with business service and the
relationship between these resources
D. Customers start with installing the VE Console followed by their choice of VE products
Answer: B

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NO.10 Identifying each customer's recovery and budget requirements is an important first step in a BR
engagement. The customer determined they have Recovery Time Objective of 2-6 hours. Which of the
following best address their BR requirements?
A. Continuous Availability, end to end automation
B. Backup / Restore
C. Rapid data recovery
D. Real time data and server replication
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-553
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Certified Specialist Netezza Performance Software v6.0)

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NO.1 Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Click on the exhibit.
Given the following query:
SELECT * FROM TableA, TableB WHERE TableA.c_custkey = TableB.o_custkey;
What type of join processing will occur when the query is executed?
A. Collocation hash join processing
B. Distributed hash join processing
C. Broadcast sort merge join processing
D. Replication sort merge join processing
Answer: A

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NO.3 After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which statement about the TwinFin Groom feature is true?
A. GROOM TABLE requires space to make a complete copy of the table.
B. GROOM TABLE only operates on tables that include an ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. GROOM TABLE prevents nzload from adding data while GROOM is in progress.
D. GROOM TABLE allows UPDATE, DELETE, and INSERT operations to occur while GROOM is in
progress.
Answer: D

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NO.5 When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E

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NO.7 Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D

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NO.8 Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E

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NO.10 Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C

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NO.11 When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A

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NO.14 Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A

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NO.15 What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the raw user data space available on a TwinFin 24?
A. 24TB
B. 48TB
C. 64TB
D. 100TB
Answer: C

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NO.17 What should be considered when you are asked to select the distribution key columns for a very large
fact table?
A. As many columns as possible.
B. Columns that contain many nulls.
C. Columns that contain few unique values.
D. Columns used to join to other large tables.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C

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NO.19 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B

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NO.20 What is the TwinFin host Linux file that must be modified to adjust optimizer settings
permanently?
A. /nz/data/postgresql.conf
B. /nz/data/config/system.cfg
C. /nz/kit/sys/initTopology.cfg
D. /nz/kit/log/sysmgr/sysmgr.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-184
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere Message Broker V7.0, System Administration)

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NO.1 An administrator needs to install service updates to the WebSphere Message Broker V 7.0
toolkit.What should the administrator use to do this?
A. IBM Support Center
B. IBM Software Support
C. IBM Support Assistant
D. IBM Installation Manager
Answer: D

IBM   000-184   000-184   000-184 original questions   000-184

NO.2 An administrator has installed WebSphere Message Broker V7.0 on a production system which has an
existing implementation of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1. The administrator already has an
Administration API (CMP API) script for monitoring the deployed resources on V6.1. What is the option
that the administrator can use to monitor the deployed resources for WebSphere Message Broker V7.0?
A. Install SupportPac I098.
B. Reuse the existing Administration API script.
C. Update the CLASSPATH to add new API JARs.
D. Update the existing Administration API script to remove deprecated API calls.
Answer: B

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NO.3 An administrator needs to administer a broker on a Windows platform through the Administration API
exerciser. How can the administrator start the exerciser?
A. Set the mqsiclasspath and then invoke ConfigManagerProxy.sh
B. Invoke the shell script install_dir/sample/ConfigManagerProxy/StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser
C. Run the shell script install_dir\sample\ConfigManagerProxy\StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser
from a WebSphere Message Broker Command Console.
D. Put a .bat script install_dir/sample/ConfigMangerProxy/StartConfigManagerProxyExerciser which
can include the broker environment and start the Configuration Manager.
Answer: C

IBM practice test   000-184   000-184   000-184   000-184   000-184

NO.4 An administrator is asked to set up administration security for an existing broker, so that only
authorized users can perform administrative tasks against the broker and its resources. What command
does the administrator need to run?
A. mqsisetsecurity
B. mqsichangebroker
C. mqsicreateaclentry
D. mqsichangeproperties
Answer: B

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NO.5 A company has a central server, which stores the catalogue price of everything that the company sells.
This information is required by all Point of Sale (PoS) terminals in all the stores, and each PoS terminal
must be notified of any price change. The PoS terminals connect to the central server through TCP/IP and
wait for any price changes. The server sends any price changes to all connected client applications. The
company has future plans to include other types of PoS clients which uses
WebSphere MQ protocol to interact with the central server. How should the system be
implemented?
A. Implement protocol conversion on the application code.
B. Implement protocol transformation engines at request entry point.
C. Implement WebSphere Message Broker with TCP/IP and WebSphere MQ Adapters.
D. Implement WebSphere Message Broker to support other request protocols like WebSphere MQ.
Answer: D

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NO.6 An administrator needs to group several brokers into a Broker Set to make it easier to manage them
from a single WebSphere Message Broker Explorer workspace. The administrator creates an Automatic
Broker Set using the filter brokerEnvironment:Production. Which of the following steps does the
administrator need to perform in WebSphere Message Broker Explorer to ensure the correct brokers are
in this Broker Set?
A. Drag and drop the correct brokers onto the Broker Set.
B. Manually change the Properties of the correct brokers.
C. Manually change the Broker Tags of the correct brokers.
D. Define the properties of the filter to select brokers by the correct name.
Answer: C

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NO.7 An administrator needs to modify the JVM Heap Size property that is associated with an execution
group. Which command should the administrator execute?
A. mqsichangebroker
B. mqsichangeproperties
C. mqsichangeexecutiongroup
D. mqsicreateexecutiongroup
Answer: B

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NO.8 A broker administrator needs to verify the number of message flows that are running or will start to run
within each execution group in a running broker. Which detail level should be specified for mqsilist BRK1
-d?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: C

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NO.9 An administrator has been asked to prepare the environment for migration of WebSphere Message
Broker Version 6.0 to WebSphere Message Broker Version 7.0. What steps does the administrator need
to perform to prepare the environment for migration? Upgrade the WebSphere Message Broker Version
6.0 to use:
A. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.0 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 9 (Version 6.0.0.9) or later, upgrade
WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
B. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.1 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 7 (Version 6.0.0.7) or later, upgrade
WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
C. WebSphere MQ Version 7.0.1 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to Fix
Pack 9 (Version 6.0.0.9) or later, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
D. WebSphere MQ Version 6.0.2.10 before migration, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker runtime to
Fix Pack 7 (Version 6.0.0.7) or later, upgrade WebSphere Message Broker toolkit to 6.0.2 or later.
Answer: C

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NO.10 An administrator has backed up the broker using the command mqsibackupbroker. The command was
issued while the broker was running and processing deployments. What is the outcome?
A. The command completes successfully as normal.
B. The backup file contains incomplete information and is unusable.
C. The command does not complete until deployments are complete.
D. An error message was issued indicating the broker was in use.
Answer: B

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NO.11 An administrator has installed WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 on a production system which
has an existing implementation of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1. How should the administrator use
the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to administer WebSphere Message Broker 7.0 and
WebSphere Message Broker V6.1?
A. Use the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to adopt the V6.1 brokers.
B. Use the WebSphere Message Broker Toolkit V7.0 to connect to the WebSphere Message Broker V6.1.
C. Install SupportPac I097 to achieve unified administration through the WebSphere Message Broker
Toolkit V7.0.
D. Administration of WebSphere Message Broker V6.1 is not supported through WebSphere Message
Broker Toolkit V7.0.
Answer: D

IBM questions   000-184   000-184 test questions

NO.12 A company has legacy and modern applications co-existing in their enterprise environment. The legacy
application requires business messages in COMMAREA formats while the modern application requires
XML format for processing. There is a need for their web application to interact with legacy and modern
application to process a transaction. What is the recommended way for implementing the desired
solution.?
A. Split the business use case to two different transactions each invoking one target component.
B. Invoke the modern application on XML format request then process the legacy application request.
C. Implement two different format request invocation from the application to the target
components.
D. Implement WebSphere Message Broker and route the request on specified formats to the target
components.
Answer: D

IBM   000-184   000-184 test answers   000-184 test questions

NO.13 An administrator has been asked to do capacity planning for the implementation of WebSphere
Message Broker on an already existing system where other enterprise applications are running.
What is the recommended approach for sizing?
A. Analyze the current capacity sizing on the system.
B. Implement WebSphere Message Broker and add 1GB RAM in current production.
C. Implement WebSphere Message Broker on the production so the capacity planning can be done.
D. Vertically scale the system by adding CPU, RAM & disk space if needed for Message Broker
implementation.
E. Generate the capacity planning report via the capacity planning for a given topology feature in
WebSphere Message Broker.
Answer: A,D

IBM   000-184   000-184 questions   000-184

NO.14 A message flow Flow1 is running on execution group EG1 on the broker BRK1. As per the business
requirement, the flow accesses the database for transformation and routing. The user ID and password
used by the flow need to be changed to adhere to the company's new policy for user IDs and passwords.
The administrator has been asked to change the user ID and password for the given message flow
without affecting other flows. The administrator is using the mqsisetdbparms command to set the user ID
and password. Which command should the administrator use next?
A. mqsistart BRK1
B. mqsireload BRK1 -e EG1
C. mqsistartmsgflow BRK1 -e EG1 -m Flow1
D. mqsistopmsgflow BRK1 -e EG1 -m Flow1
Answer: B

IBM   000-184   000-184 test questions   000-184 test

NO.15 An administrator has backed up a broker on AIX using the command mqsibackupbroker. After the
broker is restored on a new machine, which one of the following tasks must be completed?
A. Restore JAR files that were deployed in BAR files.
B. Restore the configurable services that were defined.
C. Restore the necessary MQ queues for message flows.
D. Restore the /var/mqsi/components/<broker> file system.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M94
Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere DataStage Fundamentals Tech Mastery v1)

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NO.1 Where can the Job Parameters be used for DataStage parallel job development?
A.In directory and file names
B.In constraints and file names
C.In constraints and derivations
D.All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.2 A file contains a large number of product records with unique groups based on product ID.Which
Grouping Method would you prefer to use in Aggregate Stage for aggregating the data?
A.Hash
B.Sort
C.Random
D.Round Robin
Answer: B

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NO.3 What types of file formats can you export the DataStage Jobs into?
A.TXT and XML
B.DSX and CSV
C.DSX and XML
D.TXT and CSV
Answer: C

IBM   000-M94   000-M94

NO.4 Which one of the following matching options is NOT supported by Lookup Stage?
A.Equality match
B.Caseless match
C.Range on the Target Link
D.Range on the Reference Link
Answer: C

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NO.5 What always happens if an Action is NOT TRUE?
A.The data is discarded.
B.The operator is informed.
C.Processing jumps to the next Function, if any exist.
D.The Task immediately completes.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M247
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Cognos Business Intelligence Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 What is NOT one of the three basic questions-or three rings-that business analytics answers to help
organizations optimize business strategies?
A. What is happening?
B. Why is it happening?
C. Where is it happening?
D. What is likely to happen?
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which part of driving performance is NOT handled by IBM Cognos 8 BI.?
A. reporting
B. planning
C. analysis
D. scorecarding
Answer: A

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NO.3 A professional report author in the IT department has difficulty scaling reports to meet the needs of
various user types across the business. Which feature of IBM Cognos BI would be most helpful to this
author?
A. common business model across data sources
B. flexible one-to-many prompted reports or ability to create ad-hoc reports
C. modern SOA architecture
D. environment-neutral platform
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is NOT a major advantage that IBM Cognos BI products have over the competition?
A. promotion of self-service
B. ability to consume Information In a variety of formats, languages, and devices
C. consistency and accessibility from a wide range of data sources across the entire organization
D. ability to build and automate business processes and share findings through collaboration
Answer: D

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NO.5 According to studies by IBM and Gartner, what do CIOs list as their number one concern?
A. compliance
B. business analytics
C. mobilitysolutions
D. risk management
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-058
Exam Name: IBM (Rational Performance Tester V8 )

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NO.1 What do good candidates for datapool substitution do?
A. simulate unique user credentials and data entry choices by individual users
B. simulate random timing and workflow variations by individual users
C. improve application performance by requesting pages that are already cached
D. make performance more predictable by using the same data values for every user
Answer: A

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NO.2 What should you do first, before you record a performance test?
A. reset the test environment (servers running, data refreshed)
B. start IBM Rational Performance Tester
C. push the red Record button
D. open your browser
Answer: A

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NO.3 What happens to all the page elements in a test?
A. They are grouped by page unless the application under test uses AJAX.
B. They are grouped by page as a visual aid to enhance readability.
C. They are assigned dynamically to separate virtual testers at playback time.
D. They use separate records from a single datapool.
Answer: B

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NO.4 What are three key elements of a workload? (Choose three.)
A. user attributes (types and characteristics)
B. transaction mix and frequency
C. test script creation
D. data security
E. test environment and configuration
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 After a test run, the tester sums up all the individual requests response times but discovers that the total
is not equal to the overall page response time. What are three causes of the difference? (Choose three.)
A. There is a defect in IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 that will be fixed in the next fix pack.
B. The page response time is more than the sum of the requests because it accounts for time taken to set
up the connections.
C. The page response time is less than the sum of the requests because several requests could have
been executed concurrently.
D. The page response time is more than the sum of the requests because custom code for response
correlation in a page is executed serially and is added to the page response time.
E. The page response time is less than the sum of the requests because the response for the request is in
the system cache.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.6 A company wants to see if their website can be operated under load for a longer duration of time. Which
type of test is suitable for this requirement?
A. stress test
B. volume test
C. contention test
D. endurance test
Answer: D

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NO.7 Two workstations are installed with the full IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 product in addition to a
server that is installed with the IBM Rational Agent Controller. Stress testing is conducted with all the
machines. Response time breakdown data is collected. Later the tester discovers that the data was in fact
not collected. What are four probable causes? (Choose four.)
A. The server has not been instrumented.
B. IBM Rational Performance Tester is running on the other workstation.
C. The response time breakdown collection has not been enabled.
D. The firewall between the server and the two servers has not been opened.
E. IBM Rational Performance Tester 8.2 is not compatible with IBM Rational Agent Controller.
F. IBM Rational Agent Controller is not running on the workstation.
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.8 Which statement is true about a custom code segment?
A. It can use any string highlighted in orange as an input variable.
B. It can use one or more references that precede it as input variables.
C. It can use one or more references that follow it as return values.
D. It always returns null unless there has been a correlation error.
Answer: B

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NO.9 When you first run your test, the results are very spiky.
How should you smooth your data?
A. paced loop
B. random selector
C. comment
D. delay
Answer: A

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NO.10 What are four options in customizing the appearance of a report graph in the Graphic Configuration
window.? (Choose four.)
A. graphic spans full width
B. display run time
C. draw thick lines
D. use 3D bars
E. font size
F. type face
Answer: A,B,C,D

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Exam Code: 000-580
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Case Manager V5.0)

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NO.1 Which tool is used to define the application server properties, define the Content Engine server
properties, define LDAP provider accounts and properties, and to deploy the Case Manager API and
Case Manager Builder to the application server?
A. Case Manager Client
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. IBM Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: D

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NO.2 When conducting a single server installation using the IBM Case Manager Platform Installation Tool,
which one of the following directory service products is supported?
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Oracle Internet Directory
C. Microsoft Active Directory
D. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which two are allowed under the IBM Case Manager license agreement? (Choose two)
A. Use of the Lotus Widget Factory
B. Use of IBM Lotus Sametime Connect Client
C. Unrestricted use of IBM FileNet Business Process Manager
D. Use of the Lotus Mashup Program to integrate custom widgets with Case Manager data sources
E. Use of the Lotus Data Feed Program to deliver feeds from any data source, including non ECM data
sources.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 Which tool is used to copy the solution package from development environment to the production
environment?
A. Case Manager Builder
B. FileNet Enterprise Manager
C. FileNet Deployment Manager
D. Case Manager Administration Client
Answer: C

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NO.5 IBM Case Manager 5.0 is supported on the following directory servers? (Choose two)
A. Novell eDirectory
B. Oracle Directory Server
C. IBM Tivoli Directory Server
D. MS Active Directory Server
E. SUN Java Directory Server
Answer: CD

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NO.6 Which statement is correct in regards to the use of Cognos Business Intelligence (BI) under the IBM
Case Manager license?
A. Unrestricted use of Cognos BI is allowed
B. Cognos BI can only be used to deliver Case Analyzer reports
C. Cognos BI can be used to deliver reports from any Case Manager data source
D. Cognos BI is not covered under the Case Manager license and must be purchased separately
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which two items are always part of a case management solution? (Choose two)
A. Content
B. Analytics
C. Database lookups
D. System integrations
E. Process
Answer: AE

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NO.8 IBM Case Manager is best suited for what type of process?
A. An informal process which is modeled and partially tracked by the system
B. A formal process where each step and business goal is fully controlled by the system
D. A combination of formal and informal processes where a balance of control and flexibility is achieved
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which statement is correct in regards to the use of IBM WebSphere ILOG JRules under the IBM Case
Manager license?
A. ILog JRules can only be deployed in a development environment
B. ILog JRules must be deployed on a remote server from IBM Case Manager
C. ILog JRules must be deployed on the server on which IBM Case Manager is deployed
D. ILog JRules can be deployed on a remote server or on the same server which IBM Case Manager
is deployed
Answer: C

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NO.10 At a minimum, IBM Case Manager implementations require which IBM FileNet P8 platform components
to be installed?
A. IBM FileNet Content Engine
B. IBM FileNet Content Engine and Workplace XT
C. IBM FileNet Content Engine and Process Engine
D. IBM FileNet Content Engine, Process Engine, and Workplace
Answer: D

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NO.11 When deploying Case Manager in a distributed architecture, which two databases are supported?
(Choose two)
A. Oracle
B. MySQL
C. Sybase
D. IBM DB2
E. Microsoft SQL Server
Answer: AD

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NO.12 Which two components are optional with the IBM Case Manager? (Choose two)
A. IBM Case Analyzer
B. IBM Mashup Center
C. IBM Content Engine
D. IBM WebSphere Process Server
E. IBM Process
Answer: AD

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NO.13 Choose two steps below that you would perform when validating the installation of an IBM Case
Manager application into a production environment? (Choose two)
A. Log in to the IBM Case Builder
B. Log in to the Case Manager Client
C. Verify the ICM API deployment was successful by accessing the following link:
http://server:port/P8PE/Health
D. Verify the Content Engine deployment was successful by accessing the following link:
http://server:port/P8CE/Health
E. Verify the ICM API deployment was successful by accessing the following link:
http://server:port:/CaseManager/CASEREST/v1/info
Answer: BE

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NO.14 Which statement best describes the key differences between case management and business process
management?
A. Cases tend to be predictable and rely on system control or business rule based control flow
B. Cases may not always involve human participation, while a business process solution always require
human interaction
C. In case management, the business problem is solved by a knowledge worker using tasks that may
have been modeled; in business process management, the business problem is always solved by
following a modeled process
D. The emphasis of case management is on designing a step by step procedure to solve a business
problem; the emphasis of business process management is on designing a flexible solution for knowledge
workers to solve a repeatable problem
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which insurance company's business scenario or challenge is a prime candidate for IBM Case
Manager?
A. A customer requests written details of the policy and additional product descriptions
B. A customer requests an address change as well as a billing cycle change. The customer wants to
transition from bi-annual billing to monthly billing
C. A customer requests a new home content policy to be added to existing policies. Content descriptions,
estimations, deductible options are evaluated
D. A customer requests a last name change. This means a pre-determined list of systems containing
account information need to be updated with the new last
Answer: C

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NO.16 A Which of the following statements is true when working with a Case Manager solution in a
development environment?
A. Use Case Manager Builder to deploy the solution
B. Use Case Manager Administrator Client to deploy the solution
C. Use FileNet Enterprise Manager to copy the solution from design object store to the target object store
D. Use FileNet Deployment Manager to copy the solution from design object store to the target object
store
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which two REST APIs are offered with IBM Case Manager? (Choose two)
A. Content Manager Interoperability Services (CMIS) APIs
B. Case REST APIs
C. Object REST APIs
D. Content REST APIs
E. Analytics REST
Answer: AB

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NO.18 In a distributed system architecture scenario, if installing IBM Case Manager to an existing FileNet P8
environment, which option applies.?
A. Deploy a new P8 5.0 Process Engine server in the existing database collocated with the case
management target object store database
B. Deploy a new P8 5.0 Process Engine server with its own separate database collocated with the case
management target object store database
C. Collocate the existing P8 4.5 Process Engine database with the corresponding target object store
database for case management on Content Engine
D. Collocate the existing P8 5.0 Process Engine database with the corresponding target object store
database for case management on Content Engine
Answer: B

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NO.19 An administrator has installed IBM WebSphere ILog JRules under the Case Manager license
agreement and is going to deploy an ILog Decision Service. Which statement is correct?
A. The Decision Service may only be invoked directly by IBM Case Manager
B. The Decision Service may only be invoked by a custom program and cannot be invoked directly by
IBM Case Manager
C. The Decision Service may be invoked by any program as long as it is in response to a request that has
originated from IBM Case Manager
D. The Decision Service may be invoked by any program, irregardless of whether this is done in response
to a request that has originated from IBM Case Manager
Answer: C

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NO.20 When conducting a single server installation using the IBM Case Manager Platform Installation Tool,
which one of the following databases is supported?
A. Oracle
B. MySQL
C. IBM DB2
D. Microsoft SQLServerW Times New Roman ArialZ X
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M245
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Automation Sales Mastery Test v4)

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NO.1 What is the name of the IBM Business Service Management solution that: Simplifies service model
maintenance through discovery integration, Provides Real-time status through Consolidated Operations
Management integration, and Calculates ° Key Pe rf o r m ance I nd i ca t o r ¡± b y l ev er a gi n g a ut om at e
acquisition of business metrics?
A. Tivoli Business Service Management
B. Tivoli Business Service Strategy
C. IBM Business Framework
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Name the solution that is offered as a component of TEM (Tivoli Endpoint Manager) for Lifecycle
Management, Security & Compliance and also offered as a standalone product.?
A. Patch Management
B. Version Management
C. Compliance Management
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is one of the processes which demands the most of human resources inside a complex IT
Environment?
A. Monitoring.
B. Track of changes and configuration.
C. View of the current environment.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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