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Exam Code: 000-169
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Administr)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 72 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

000-169 (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Administr) Free Demo Download: http://www.it-tests.com/000-169.html

NO.1 An administrator is installing WebSphere Lombardi Edition in a horizontal clustered environment using
JBoss for the application server(s) and Oracle for the database. After the installation, the administrator
realizes that the SMTP server that WebSphere Lombardi Edition uses to send emails needs to be
changed. The administrator has made the changes to the configuration files. Next, the administrator looks
for the name and location of the generated run-time file that shows the current Lombardi configuration
settings. What is the name and location of this file?
A. \process-server\TeamWorksConfiguration.current.xml
B. \process-server\config\TeamWorksConfiguration.current.xml
C. \process-server\config\TeamWorksConfiguration.running.xml
D. \process-server\TeamWorksConfiguration.running.xml
Answer: D

IBM test   000-169   000-169   000-169   000-169 questions

NO.2 An administrator is installing IBM WebSphere Lombardi in a horizontal clustered environment using
JBoss for the application server(s) and Oracle for the database. What does the administrator enter for the
multicast addresses of the Test Runtime Environment servers?
A. A different multicast address for every process server and every performance server.
B. A single multicast address shared by all Process Servers and Performance Servers across all nodes.
C. A multicast address shared by all process servers on all nodes plus a different multicast address
shared by all performance servers on all nodes.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.3 An administrator is installing IBM WebSphere Lombardi in a horizontal clustered environment using
JBoss for the application server(s) and Oracle for the database. After the installation, the administrator
realizes that the SMTP server that IBM WebSphere Lombardi uses to send emails needs to be changed.
In the appropriate configuration XML element for this change, which value for the merge attribute should
be used?
A. replace
B. append
C. addTo
D. mergeParent
E. mergeChildren
Answer: A

IBM exam   000-169 exam prep   000-169

NO.4 Refer to the Exhibit.
The administrator edits a configuration file to add a log to the Process Admin Console. The administrator
adds the WebAPI log to the Process Admin Console display and immediately logs back in, but does not
see the file in the menu. What should the administrator's next steps be?
A. Restart the Process Server.
B. Restart the Performance Server.
C. Examine his code. He has errors in his code so the file will not display.
D. Examine the log4j.xml file to see if another system administrator changed the name or location of the
Web API log.
E. Check the generated run-time file containing the merged configuration to verify his change is being
read by the server.
Answer: A,D,E

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NO.5 The administrator is changing a configuration file to alter the SMTP server WebSphere Lombardi
Edition uses to send emails. The administrator has already chosen the code to implement this change
(one of the code blocks shown in the Exhibit). Refer to the Exhibit. Which tags should the administrator
nest the correct code in?
A. xml tags
B. server tags
C. properties tags
D. It does not need to be nested.
Answer: C

IBM test questions   000-169   000-169

NO.6 Everything in an administrator's deployment is running a bit slow. The administrator suddenly realizes
that the requirement to re-configure the logging levels for the servers had been forgotten. The
administrator had investigated a problem yesterday, but had forgotten to change the logging level back to
the production values after talking to support. The administrator has correctly changed the logging levels
and everything is back to normal, but the developers at the administrator's company requested that the
administrator show some different logs in the Process Server Console. What file should the administrator
edit to view the logs in the Process Admin Console?
A. 50AppServer.xml
B. 80EventManager.xml
C. 99Local.xml
D. 100Custom.xml
Answer: D

IBM   000-169   000-169   000-169   000-169

NO.7 An administrator is installing IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition in a horizontal clustered environment
using JBoss for the application server(s) and Oracle for the database. After the installation, the
administrator realizes that the SMTP server that IBM WebSphere Lombardi Edition uses to send emails
needs to be changed. After the administrator has made this change and saved the file, what is the next
step?
A. Restart the process and performance servers.
B. Examine the generated Lombardi run-time configuration file.
C. Make the same changes to other configuration files in the cluster.
D. None of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 Everything in an administrator's deployment is running a bit slow. The administrator suddenly realizes
that the requirement to re-configure the logging levels for the servers had been forgotten. The
administrator had investigated a problem yesterday, but had forgotten to change the logging level back to
the production values after talking to support. The administrator wants to change the level of the logging
to error. With error level logging, what is logged by the system?
A. Error level only.
B. Error level and fatal level.
C. Error level and warn level.
D. No logging; logj4.xml supports error logging levels, but Lombardi does not.
Answer: B

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NO.9 The administrator has changed a configuration file to alter the SMTP server WebSphere Lombardi
Edition uses to send emails. Refer to the Exhibit. If the administrator completed this change correctly,
what can be seen in the generated Lombardi run-time configuration file? Which one of the following
options represents the correct code sample?
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: A

IBM exam simulations   000-169   000-169 original questions   000-169   000-169 answers real questions

NO.10 After installing WebSphere Lombardi Edition, the administrator realizes that the SMTP server that
WebSphere Lombardi Edition uses to send emails needs to be changed. Refer to the Exhibit. Select the
correct code for implementing the change.
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-545
Exam Name: IBM (DB2 9.7 SQL Procedure Developer)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 109 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Click the Exhibit button.
A user-defined function was created using the statement shown in the exhibit. Which additional option can
be added to the CREATE FUNCTION statement to tell the optimizer that the function does not always
return the same results for a given argument value?
A. NO EXTERNAL ACTION
B. NOT FENCED
C. NOT DETERMINISTIC
D. STATIC DISPATCH
Answer: C

IBM   000-545   000-545 questions

NO.2 Which SQL procedure declaration is coded correctly?
A. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE
EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION SET commission = 0; DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR
SELECT * FROM employee; DECLARE a DOUBLE; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
B. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE
EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION SET commission = 0; DECLARE a DOUBLE; DECLARE my_cur
CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
C. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE a
DOUBLE; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER FOR SQLEXCEPTION SET commission = 0; DECLARE my_cur
CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
D. CREATE PROCEDUREmyproc(IN salary DOUBLE, OUT commission DOUBLE) BEGIN DECLARE a
DOUBLE; DECLARE my_cur CURSOR FOR SELECT * FROM employee; DECLARE EXIT HANDLER
FOR SQLEXCEPTION
SET commission = 0; SET a = .06 * salary; SET commission = a; END
Answer: D

IBM   000-545   000-545   000-545

NO.3 Which CREATE PROCEDURE statement option should be used if you plan on issuing a DECLARE
GLOBAL TEMPORARY TABLE statement from within the SQL procedure body?
A. CONTAINS SQL
B. READS SQL DATA
C. MODIFIES SQL DATA
D. LANGUAGE SQL
Answer: C

IBM   000-545 exam simulations   000-545

NO.4 In the stored procedure below: What will the value of the P_ID parameter be if the procedure is
invoked and a value of 2 is specified for the START_VALUE parameter?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C

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NO.5 A developer wants to code the following statements in an SQL procedure:
A. 1, 2, 3, 4
B. 2, 4, 3, 1
C. 3, 4, 2, 1
D. 4, 3, 2, 1
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is a reason to use SQL procedures in DB2?
A. to use different programming languages B. to reduce code sharing
C. to move business logic rules into the database
D. to eliminate the need for testing
Answer: C

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NO.7 Click the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, how many rows will be returned by the SQL query shown below? SELECT *
FROM TABLE(getnumemployee(21?) AS dSELECT * FROM TABLE(getnumemployee(?21?) AS d
A.0
B.1
C.7
D.10
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement correctly describes characteristics of external functions?
A. External functions cannot return tables.
B. All cursors opened within an external function should stay open until the database isquiesced.
C. Scratchpads can be used to allocate dynamic memory required for multiple function invocations.
D. Transactions can be terminated within external functions.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Given the following SQL:
Which of the following statements is true?
A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result
set.
B. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In the function shown below:
A. SELECT * FROMTABLE(fcn1('B01'))
B. SELECTTABLE(fcn1('B01')) FROM SYSIBM.SYSDUMMY1
C. SELECT * FROMfcn1('B01')
D. SELECTfcn1('B01') FROM SYSIBM.SYSDUMMY1
Answer: A

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NO.11 Given the two SQL procedures shown below: What is the expected output if procedure S1 is invoked
with the value 1 provided for parameter V1?
A. NULL
B. 2
C. 5
D. 7
Answer: D

IBM test answers   000-545   000-545   000-545   000-545 answers real questions

NO.12 A developer needs to create a user-defined function that will return a list of employees who work in a
particular department. Which statement will successfully create a function that meets this objective?
A. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE LANGUAGE SQL
READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM
employee WHERE employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno
B. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE DYNAMIC RESULT
SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
C. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) LANGUAGE SQL READS SQL DATA RETURN SELECT
empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE employee.workdept =
dept_employees.deptno
D. CREATE FUNCTIONdept_employees (deptno CHAR(3)) RETURNS TABLE (empno CHAR(6),
l_nameVARCHAR(15), f_nameVARCHAR(12)) DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 LANGUAGE SQL READS
SQL DATA DECLARE emp_info CURSOR WITH RETURN FOR
SELECT empno, lastname AS l_name, firstnme AS f_name FROM employee WHERE
employee.workdept = dept_employees.deptno OPEN emp_info; RETURN
Answer: C

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NO.13 The CREATE OR REPLACE PROCEDURE statement is similar semantically to which of the following
combined statements?
A. DROP and CREATE PROCEDURE
B. ALTER and CREATE PROCEDURE
C. UPDATE and CREATE PROCEDURE
D. DROP and ALTER PROCEDURE
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which three optional clauses can be used when creating an external function? (Choose three.)
A. SCRATCHPAD
B. NOTEPAD
C. LANGUAGE
D. EXTERNAL NAME
E. DATABASEINFO
Answer: A,C,D

IBM   000-545 answers real questions   000-545

NO.15 If this statement was used to create an SQL procedure named P_EXIT:
A. 10
B. 20
C. 99
D. NULL
Answer: C

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NO.16 The CREATE PROCEDURE statement shown below was executed against a database called MYDB.
CREATE PROCEDURE myschema.proc1(IN p1 INTEGER, OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 SMALLINT)
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc'; END Which two CREATE PROCEDURE statements, when executed against the
same database, will succeed? (Choose two.)
A. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 INTEGER) BEGIN SET p2 = 123;
END
B. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 INTEGER, OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 CHAR(4))
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc'; END
C. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 INTEGER, OUT p3 SMALLINT)
BEGIN SET p2 = 123; END
D. CREATE PROCEDUREotherschema.proc1(IN p1 CHAR(4), OUT p2 CHAR(4), OUT p3 CHAR(4))
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc'; END
E. CREATE PROCEDUREmyschema.proc1(IN p1 NUMBER, OUT p2 NUMBER, OUT p3 NUMBER)
BEGIN SET p2 = 'abc';END
Answer: A,D

IBM answers real questions   000-545   000-545

NO.17 Click on the Exhibit button.
Referring to the exhibit, what is the OUT_PHONENUMBERS result set when the SQL procedure is
invoked by the call statement shown below? CALL
find_customers(ARRAY[?16-305-3745? ?05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746? '905-414-4566'], ?16??)
A. [?16-305-3745??05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746']
B. [?16-305-3745??05-416-4565? ?16-305-3746? '905-414-4566']
C. [?05-416-4565? '905-414-4566']
D. [?16-305-3745? ?16-305-3746[?16-305-3745? ?16-305-3746?
Answer: D

IBM demo   000-545 original questions   000-545   000-545

NO.18 Which procedure demonstrates the correct use of dynamic SQL?
A. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count1 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=?
WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count,
item_code; END
B. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count2 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN new_count INTEGER, IN
item_code INTEGER) BEGIN DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET
quantity_on_hand=? WHERE item_number=?'; PREPARE v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE
v_stmt1 USING tab_name, new_count, item_code; END
C. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count4 (INtab_name VARCHAR(128), IN col_name1
VARCHAR(128), IN col_name2 VARCHAR(128), IN new_countINTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER)
BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE ? SET ?=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING tab_name, col_name1, new_count, col_name2,
item_code; END
D. CREATE PROCEDURE update_count5 (INnew_count INTEGER, IN item_code INTEGER) BEGIN
DECLARE v_dynSQL VARCHAR(200); DECLARE v_col_name VARCHAR(128); SET v_col_name =
'item_number'; SET v_dynSQL = 'UPDATE stock SET quantity_on_hand=? WHERE ?=?'; PREPARE
v_stmt1 FROM v_dynSQL; EXECUTE v_stmt1 USING new_count, v_col_name, item_code; END
Answer: A

IBM   000-545   000-545   000-545

NO.19 Given the following SQL:
Which statement is incorrect?
A. The procedure declaration requires the DYNAMIC RESULT SETS 1 clause in order to return a result
set.
B. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CLIENT clause in order to return a result set.
C. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN TO CALLER clause in order to return a result set.
D. The cursor declaration requires the WITH RETURN clause in order to return a result set.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which statement is permitted within a scalar user-defined function body?
A. COMMIT
B. INSERT
C. SIGNAL
D. LOOP
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M39
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebSphere MQ Technical Sales Mastery Test v2 )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 30 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 What is the name of the MQMD field that a message producer uses to ensure that no consumers
receive a message after a message has been on a destination queue for a specified period of time?
A. Timeout
B. Expiry
C. TimeToLive
D. MaxAge
Answer: B

IBM   000-M39   000-M39

NO.2 In order to write messages to a queue what operation must be done first?
A. Connect to the queue
B. Verify queue is empty
C. Set the queue to read/write mode
D. Open the queue
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following is NOT a channel connection enhancement new in WebSphere MQ v7?
A. MQI channel connections can be shared
B. SSL encryption for each MQI Channel connection
C. Read-ahead for non-persistent messages
D. Automatic client reconnection
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is required for WebSphere MQ v7 to support publish-subscribe messaging?
A. A queue manager
B. A publish-subscribe broker that has the same name as the queue manager
C. A separate broker process that is associated with each queue manager
D. ASupportPac is available to provide publish-subscribe functionality
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which topic string is NOT valid for a subscribing application to get all messages about fresh fruit if a
topic tree exists with the following topic hierarchy: deli/fresh; deli/fresh/fruit; deli/tinned/nuts;
deli/tinned/meat?
A. deli
B. deli/+/fruit
C. deli/fresh/fruit
D. deli/#
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-038
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Fundamental)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 100 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which policy type allows accounts and accesses to be validated periodically?
A. Identity
B. Adoption
C. Provisioning
D. Recertification
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are two output formats generated by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 reports? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. DSML
E. Microsoft Word
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B

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NO.5 What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is a function of an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. to log access activities on the managed resource
B. to provide reporting capability on a managed resource
C. to create and modify accounts on a managed resource
D. to create and modify password rules on a managed resource
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which product can be configured with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager for auditing requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Security Operation Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Compliance Operation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
Answer: B

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NO.9 Where does JavaScript defined with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) execute.?
A. browser
B. database
C. directory server
D. application server
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C

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NO.11 What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which activity should be included during the requirements gathering phase for automating account
provisioning?
A. document reverse password synchronization
B. document challenge and response questions
C. document Self-Service Console requirements
D. document relationships between roles and accounts
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which operation is valid when a user's identity is suspended given properly configured automatic
provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory Server.
Answer: A

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NO.14 What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B

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NO.15 What can be achieved by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business protecting IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager?
A. data sync
B. access control
C. roles management
D. federated identity management
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-172
Exam Name: IBM (IBM BPM Blueprint: WebSphere Lombardi Edition V7.1 Program management )
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Once the discovery map is done and the process diagram view is generated, any updates made in
the process diagram view must be verified and validated in the discovery map view.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B

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NO.2 Refer to the Exhibit.
Select the option that best describes the process in the diagram?
A. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body.
Once the doors are assembled, the tires and bumpers are fitted to the body of the car. Quality
inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
B. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires and the bumpers to the body of the car. When all the
above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors perform inspection.
C. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. When all the above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors
perform inspection.
D. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. Quality inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Based on IBM BPM Blueprint best practices, while documenting activity details, the Business
Owner role is generally:
A. the business Unit Manager who runs the business
B. the person who is accountable for that particular process
C. the person who has the highest level of understanding of the process
D. the BPM lead who is responsible for implementing business process management
Answer: B

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NO.4 A big automobile manufacturer is mapping their high level process in IBM BPM Blueprint. Select
the correct list of milestones that makes the most sense (consider both logical sequence of the
milestone, as well as the best practice naming convention). ?
A. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Ship the
car through a preferred vendor
B. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble components; 3. Perform rework if it fails quality
inspection; 4. Product Shipment
C. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Perform rework if it fails
quality inspection; 4. Ship the car through a preferred vendor
D. 1. Procurement of Components; 2. Assembly of Components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Product
Shipment
Answer: D

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NO.5 "Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-602
Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Technical Support V4)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 67 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 A customer is considering consolidating 50 existing Linux x86 servers to Linux on System z.
Which of the following is the best way to create a detailed consolidated sizing for these 50
servers?
A. Collect performance and workload data for CPU busy on the current servers and translate RPE2s into
MIPS, then input the results into
eConfig for a sizing
B. Collect performance data and use it for a Fit for Purpose study to create a sizing
C. Collect performance and workload data from existing servers and share it with IT Architects and
Techline to create a sizing.
D. Use the IBM Workload Estimator (IWE) on the Internet to create the detailed consolidated sizing.
Answer: C

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NO.2 A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern.?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C

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NO.3 A client is considering a zBX for application serving. Which of the following issues need to be discussed
during implementation planning for the zBX with the client?
A. Level of Windows running on zBX
B. Toleration PTFs for z/OS running on the zBX
C. Maintenance level of zVM
D. Levels of Linux on System x, and AIX on zBX
Answer: D

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NO.4 A customer has several System z servers and is considering moving to zEnterprise. They ask if all their
installed systems can be upgraded directly to zEnterprise. Which of the following IBM z Servers will not
upgrade directly to zEnterprise?
A. z10 EC
B. z9 EC
C. z10 BC
D. z10 IFL only
Answer: D

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NO.5 A customer is installing their first zBX to analyze the fit for a large implementation later. The Operations
Director is concerned about what device would service the blade, specifically for replacing microcode or
recognizing hardware failure. Which of the following devices performs these functions for the zBX?
A. Any HMC attached to the z196
B. Any HMC attached to the System z ensemble that owns the blade
C. The HMC currently running Unified Resource Manager
D. The HMC attached to the System z node that owns the blade
Answer: C

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NO.6 A customer is planning for their first z196. At what stage should pre-sale TDA be performed?
A. Prior to point of ordering
B. Prior to proposal
C. Prior to initial solution design meeting
D. Prior to delivery
Answer: B

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NO.7 The System z specialist is talking to the IT Manager of a large enterprise who asks, what are the
benefits of Server Virtualization? Which of the following is a benefit of Server Virtualization on System z
A. Hipersocket networking reduces physical networking requirements between virtual servers
B. Equal access to all resources and data for all applications
C. Will always reduce cost of IT
D. NSF allows data be shared between UNIX, Windows and System z Servers
Answer: A

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NO.8 In a customer project status meeting, a new requirement surfaces. This requirement may result in
substantially more storage being needed than originally specified. Which of the following addresses this
change?
A. Provide a quotation for more disk
B. Recommend the client postpones the requirement
C. Propose IBM Storage Cloud Services
D. Process a project change-order
Answer: D

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NO.9 A customer with a System z Server and DS8000 storage subsystems will be creating a new remote data
center for disaster recovery (DR). The data centers are 613 kilometers (381 miles) apart. The data
migration and production cutover must be accomplished with minimal disruption.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Global Mirror
B. SVC
C. PPRC
D. Flash Copy
Answer: A

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NO.10 A z800 customer has been acquired by a larger company. The parent company is a z196 customer. The
parent company CIO has told the z800 staff to upgrade from z/OS 1.4 to a supported z/OS version on a
z10 BC. The CIO understands there is no simple supported migration path. The z800 staff plans to
present the parent company CIO four migration options. Which of the following plans will bring them to a
supported environment?
A. Research PSP buckets to ensure all required service is applied to z/OS 1.4
B. Purchase IBM Lifecycle Extension for z/OS 1.7 and migrate to z/OS 1.7
C. Order the most current version of z/OS and migrate to that version
D. Install the z10 with z/VM and run z/OS 1.4 as a z/VM Guest
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M67
Exam Name: IBM (IBM LotusLive Technical Sales Mastery Test V1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 40 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Tags are a very popular way of searching the content. Bob has emails related to XYZ customer.
How can he tag the emails and use this capability to search it later with LotusLive iNotes?
A. Bob can tag all incoming and outgoing email related to XYZ customer and sort his inbox via tag at a
later time.
B. Bob can right-click on all the emails related to XYZ customer and choose the tag option to find these
emails later in XYZ folder.
C. Tagging email and Tag Searching is not available in LotusLive iNotes.
D. Bob can navigate to iNotes mail, select the tag words, select the related emails and create a rule which
can be used to search at a later time.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which platform(s) can a customer run LotusLive on.?
A. Windows only
B. Windows and Linux
C. Windows, Linux and Mac
D. LotusLive does not run on a platform because it has its own operating system.
Answer: C

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NO.3 Taylor, a paid subscriber to LotusLive Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer.
How would Taylor invite his customer (guests)?
A. Taylor can share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask them to visit the LotusLive site and
enter the meeting ID to join. His guest will simply need to enter their name before joining.
B. Taylor customer could not participate in the meeting since they are guests. He would have to record the
meeting and send a link to the video recording.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID, but when the customer click on the link,
they will be prompted to register. Once registered, they can then participate in the meeting.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for his guest to get registered. Once registration is
complete, they could join the meeting by visiting LotusLive site, authenticating with their credentials and
entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M90
Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Analytics Theory Technical Mastery Test v1)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 49 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT available with a Text Analytics collection?
A. Search multiple collections.
B. Custom text extraction rules.
C. Deep inspection of analysis results.
D. Custom user dictionaries.
Answer: A

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NO.2 One of the challenges in working with unstructured information is that traditional business intelligence
solutions are limited to which of the following?
A. Intranet search and analysis.
B. Reporting and analysis of only structured data.
C. Reporting and analysis of only non-structured data.
D. All of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is the difference between a crawler plug-in versus an export plug-in for the crawled documents.?
A. Only the export plug-in can export the crawled document to a file system.
B. The crawler plug-in can view the metadata while the export plug-in cannot.
C. The crawler plug-in can modify the crawled document while the export plug-in cannot.
D. None, they referred to the same plug-in.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following views of the Text Miner is dedicated to analyze a three way correlation between a
pair of selected facets?
A. Deviations view.
B. Trends view.
C. Connections view.
D. Documents view.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following rules can be used to build categories?
A. Group documents by specifying a URL pattern.
B. Categorize documents that match complex query.
C. Identify documents based on specified keywords that occur in the document contents.
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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Exam Code: COG-185
Exam Name: IBM (Cognos 8 Migrating Professional Exam)
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Total Q&A: 70 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 When migrating an Impromptu catalog, an xml file that uses the same file name already exists in the
target location. What will the migration process do?
A. Create a new folder called "migration" that includes the migrated xml file.
B. Create a new file to include a date time stamp.
C. Abort the process and write to the log file.
D. Replace the existing file.
Answer: D

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NO.2 If your customer has not yet started a migration project, which migration path should they follow from
Series 7.3 to IBM Cognos 8.3?
A. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.3 version of the migration tools to
migrate from version 4 to 8.3
B. Migrate Series 7.3 content to IBM Cognos 8.3 andthen upgrade to IBM Cognos 8.4
C. Upgrade Series 7 content from version 3 to version 4, and use the 8.4 version of the migration tools to
migrate to 8.4
D. Migrate Series 7.4 content to IBM Cognos 8.4 using the migration tools
Answer: A

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NO.3 With regards to Impromptu Catalog mapping, which statement is true?
A. Catalog, Report, and File pick list prompts are migrated to value prompts.
B. Impromptu table columns with the IsKey attribute set to "true" become query items with the usage
attribute set to "fact".
C. HotFiles and Snapshots are migrated, however User Defined Functions (UDFs) are not migrated.
D. Security filters for table aliases are not migrated.
Answer: D

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NO.4 From a technical perspective, which three applications can be upgraded rather than converted or
migrated? (Choose three.)
A. Visualizer
B. Decisionstream
C. NoticeCast
D. Metrics Manager
E. Transformer
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Which technical migration approach reflects using an offshore approach for additional savings of time
and money?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Hybrid
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Expand & Purge
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three chart types are supported when migrating a chart type within an Impromptu Report?
(Choose three.)
A. Pie
B. Bubble
C. Radar
D. Hi-low close
E. Gantt
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.7 When would a customer use Compress & Optimize.?
A. When similar reports can be consolidated into a single report.
B. When batches of BI reports can be moved over quickly to IBM Cognos 8.
C. When reports or models were not properly maintained and are no longer valid.
D. When dealing primarily with Impromptu Reports and Catalogs.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The recommended approach to migration consists of five steps. Four of the steps are shown below: --
Create new applications in IBM Cognos 8 -- Continue using applications in IBM Cognos Series 7
environment -- Migrate applications to IBM Cognos 8 -- Migrate multiple applications to one application
Which step is missing?
A. Lift & Shift
B. Set up interoperability
C. Compress & Optimize
D. Perform training and education
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which two statements describe a successful migration? (Choose two.)
A. Pre-assessments, fact-finding, investigation, and execution are iterative approaches rather than a
one-time activity.
B. Identify specific goals for the migration project, and then ensure that the migration meets expectations
and adds value to your business intelligence environment.
C. Educate yourself and customers about IBM Cognos 8 and then evaluate the current IBM Cognos
Series 7 applications.
D. Use and leverage the Cognos Solution Implementation Methodology (CSIM) Migration Roadmap of
detailed activities and deliverables for a migration project.
Answer: A,B

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NO.10 Which two rules describe how PowerPlay Client reports are migrated? (Choose two.)
A. Reporter reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Excel behavior.
B. Explorer reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Web behavior.
C. Reporter reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Client behavior.
D. Explorer reports are migrated according to PowerPlay Client behavior.
Answer: B,C

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Exam Code: LOT-920
Exam Name: IBM (IBM WebShpere Portal 7.0 Deployment and Administration)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 112 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-10-31

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NO.1 Which best describes valid aspects of deleting wikis and wiki pages?
A. A wiki page deleted directly in the wiki can be restored.
B. Deleting the wiki page also deletes the Web Content Viewer portlet and the web content mapping.
C. To delete a wiki, you must delete the Web Content Viewer portlet and web content mapping from the
portal page where the content is
rendered, and then delete the template library used to create the wiki.
D. Statement A, Statement B, and Statement C are valid.
E. Only Statement A, and Statement B are valid.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following options describes a dynamic portal cluster?
A. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Extended Deployment
B. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment
C. A portal cluster with a dynamic amount of JVM heap in each cluster member
D. A portal cluster managed by WebSphere Dynamic Cluster Manager
Answer: A

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NO.3 At a high level, which of the following options best describes the sequence of steps that one should
take when setting up a WebSphere Portal static cluster?
A. 1. Install and configure WebSphere Portal as a stand-alone node for each cluster node.
2. Federate each portal server node to the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Create a portal cluster using the ConfigEngine tasks.
4. Configure the cluster members to use the same database and user registry.
B. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a managed node for each portal
node in the cluster.
2. Federate each of these nodes into the WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment cell using
the addNode command.
3. Install and configure WebSphere Portal on each portal server node.
4. Use ConfigEngine tasks to configure the database, user registry, and create the cluster.
C. 1. Install WebSphere Portal on the first node, configure the database, and use the
ConfigEngine tasks to create a profile template.
2. Prepare the first node to communicate WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment,and use
addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to
configure the cluster and user registry.
3. Install WebSphere Portal on additional nodes and use the profile template to configure.
4. Use the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks to federate the additional nodes and complete the cluster
setup.
D. 1. Use WebSphere Application Server Network Deployment to create a cell and managed node for
each portal node in the cluster.
2. Use the WebSphere Portal cluster profile template to install WebSphere Portal onto each node.
3. Use the ConfigEngine tasks to configure the nodes to use the same database and user registy.
4. Federate each of these nodes into the cluster by using the addNode and ConfigEngine tasks.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Jeremy has connected his WebSphere Portal instance to an IBM Tivoli Directory Server repository for
authentication purposes. However, while the majority of users are able to authenticate, certain users are
not able to. Jeremy confirmed that the users are attempting to authenticate with the correct user ID and
password. What is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The users should log in with an email address instead of a user ID.
B. The location of the accounts in the LDAP tree is outside the scope of where WebSphere Portal looks
for accounts.
C. The accounts are not members of the All Authenticated Portal Users group.
D. The LDAP bind password is configured incorrectly.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Where does the WebSphere Portal installation wizard log all messages?
A. <WebSphere Portal Root>/log directory
B. <WebSphere Portal Root>/InstallLog directory
C. c:\wpInstallLog.txt file
D. <profile>/PortalServer/temp/InstallLog directory
Answer: A

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NO.6 Tom is going to install a production WebSphere Portal server by replicating the installation someone
else did for the test server. Where can he get the installation information generated during the previous
installation of the test server?
A. <intall_tmp>/wpinstalllog.txt
B. <wp_root>/log/responselog.txt
C. <wp_root>/log/installresponse.txt
D. < intall_tmp>/installmessages.txt
Answer: B

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NO.7 Jim is planning on setting up a Web Content Management System for his company internet and intranet
site. He does not want any of the users to perform authoring actions like creating or editing content in this
server. And he wants them to create/modify content in a separate environment. Identify the best options
that he can consider
A. The WCM content has to be created in the same server it is rendered from.
B. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then setup syndication to replicate data
from Authoring Server to a Deliver Server and render content in deliver server.
C. He can setup a separate Authoring Server to create contents. Then utilize the WSRP support in the
JSR 286 web content viewer to display
content on a remote WebSphere Portal server or cluster.
D. Both B & C
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements is true about client-side aggregation?
A. Client-side aggregation is generally slower than server-side aggregation because more
processing happens on the client computer, which is generally less powerful than the server.
B. The portal built-in Page Builder theme allows you to configure whether that page is rendered in
client-side aggregation mode or in server-side aggregation mode for each page.
C. Client-side aggregation can be enabled for all existing portlets.
D. Client-side aggregation cannot be used on Firefox browsers.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Sunil is designing a portal cluster for production. If he is using a 32-bit version of WebSphere Portal
and has several multiprocessor servers with 16 GB of memory. What type of cluster configuration should
he use?
A. A vertical cluster, because it ensures minimal latency between cluster members
B. A horizontal cluster, because it provides fault tolerance
C. A combination of vertical and horizontal clusters to gain the benefits of both configuration types
D. A multiproduction cluster because it meets both high availability and high performance criteria
Answer: C

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NO.10 Resources registered with the tagging and rating engine can be grouped by administrators. Which of
the following options best describes the methods by which resources are grouped?
A. URI
B. Type specification
C. URI, category specification
D. URI, type specification, category specification
Answer: C

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NO.11 After installing a WebSphere Portal V7.0 and a WebSphere Virtual Enterprise server as a primary
server, which of the following options should be done to create a dynamic cluster in a WebSphere
Extended Deployment cell?
A. Run the addNode command to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, andrun the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set up the cluster.
B. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, and run the
ConfigEngine tasks to create and set
up the cluster.
C. Run the addNode tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell, create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere Extended
Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
D. Run the ConfigEngine tasks to add the node to the WebSphere Extended Deployment cell,create the
dynamic cluster using WebSphere
Extended Deployment administrative console, and run the ConfigEngine tasks to set up the cluster.
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which one of the following statements is NOT true regarding Multiple Profiles?
A. Multiple profiles share the program files (binaries)
B. Each portal profile maintains its own independent configuration
C. ConfigEngine commands must be performed at the master configuration in order to propagate
changes across all virtual profiles
D. All virtual profiles must be taken down when performing maintenance on the Portal installation
Answer: C

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NO.13 Bill wants to set up a WebSphere Portal farm with four server instances. Which of the following
statements regarding portal farms is true?
A. All four server instances that become a part of portal farm can be installed on different
operating systems.
B. Session persistence is enabled by default on all four server instances..
C. All the server instances need to be configured such that they have an identical security
configuration and user repository, such as LDAP.
D. Portal and content caches across all four server instances are replicated seamlessly.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Don is designing a highly available, secure, high traffic public website for his company. If he wants to
use WebSphere Portal, what components should he consider?
A. Dynamic cache and a stand-alone portal server with disaster recovery
B. An authentication and authorization solution, a load balancing solution, a portal cluster with HTTP
servers handling static content, and
clustered LDAP servers and database servers
C. A portal cluster, step-up authentication, and network-attached storage devices
D. An authentication and authorization solution, a business process engine, and a portal cluster
Answer: B

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NO.15 Ronnie is designing a WebSphere Portal environment for her company in which multiple
organizations within the company want to provide different portal environments to distinct user groups.
What feature of WebSphere Portal should she use to meet this need?
A. Virtual portals with separate user realms and administrators to minimize hardware costs and
configuration efforts
B. Multiple clusters in the same cell to avoid duplicate portal installations
C. Multiple portal installations on the same hardware using server virtualization to reduce
hardware costs
D. Shared portals to avoid duplicate effort between each portal
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is a portal farm?
A. A portal farm is a series of portal clusters used in high availability production environments.
B. A portal farm refers to a series of identically configured, standalone server instances.
C. A portal farm is an edition of WebSphere Portal customized for the agricultural industry.
D. A portal farm is a setup of servers that are tightly coupled for failover and recovery.
Answer: B

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NO.17 Jim wants to enable the dynamic cache of output from portlet JSPs for different windows and portlet
states. What does he need to do?
A. He needs to enable Servlet Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
B. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the Deployment Manager Administrative Console.
C. He needs to enable Portlet Fragment Caching using the portal administrative portlets.
D. He needs to enable Servlet Caching and the Portlet Fragment Caching in the administrative console
for the application server.
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following best describes the difference between horizontal and vertical clustering?
A. Vertical clustering allows for users to authenticate against multiple LDAP sources; horizontal clustering
allows multiple servers to act as one
server.
B. Horizontal clustering replicates the back-end database in real-time; vertical clustering takes advantage
of multiple WebSphere servers as a
single cell.
C. Vertical clustering takes full advantage of the resources of a multiprocessor system; horizontal
clustering provides fault-tolerance and
scalability by adding additional servers.
D. Horizontal clustering allows multiple HTTP servers to serve in a failover scenario; vertical clustering
allows Portal servers to combine processor
and memory into one server.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Sherry is preparing the ConfigEngine properties files of different portal servers for their
development, quality test, and production environments. She has noticed that the majority of the
properties are the same except the names for the server hosts, nodes, and so on. Which of the following
options would be the most efficient way for her to do this task?
A. Modify the properties file generated for each portal server separately.
B. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations and specify the location of the parent
properties file to be used when executing
the ConfigEngine tasks.
C. Modify the properties file generated for one of portal servers, copy it to other portal server,s and then
change those names manually.
D. Create a parent properties file of the common configurations, and create a script to be able to replace
the properties of the properties files for
each portal server with the properties from the parent properties file automatically.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Monica is working with clients to architect the security of their new portal, which is a two-server
clustered environment. Her client stores employee accounts in Microsoft Active Directory, and customer
accounts in IBM Tivoli Directory Server. Both employees and customers must be able to log in to the
portal. Which of the following statements is correct.?
A. The client must move all accounts into a single directory, and either of the two directory servers are
appropriate.
B. The client should have one cluster member use Active Directory for authentication, and the other
cluster member use Tivoli Directory Server.
C. The client must use distinct virtual portals for each of the two type of users (employee or customer) to
handle this scenario.
D. It is acceptable to have multiple directory servers used for authentication for all servers in a single
cluster.
Answer: D

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