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Exam Code: HP0-Y22
Exam Name: HP (Implementing HP ProCurve MultiService)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 68 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You have been asked by your customer to create a wireless network in a public area with
centralized user authentication. Given the following choices, which authentication method would
you choose to implement?
A. 802.1X authentication
B. MAC authentication
C. Web authentication
D. WEP authentication
Answer: C

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NO.2 How many Virtual Service Communities (VSCs) does the M110 support?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: B

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NO.3 On the MSM710, PoE can power the device from which port?
A. port 1
B. Internet port
C. LAN port
D. only as a backup to the direct DC power adapter
Answer: C

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NO.4 What are the characteristics of the MSM422?
A. a/b/g/n, single radio
B. a/b/g/n, triple radio, integrated AP/Controller
C. a/b/g/n, dual radio, mixed radios
D. a/b/g, dual radio, mixed radios
Answer: C

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NO.5 What are the key features of ProCurve Guest Management Software (formerly VMT)? (Select
two.)
A. the ability to create user logo designs
B. the ability to perform batch creation of user accounts
C. the ability to print X.509 certificates
D. the ability to manage a visitor's account on MSM controllers
E. the ability to import special programs for customer use
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 How does a client associated to an MSM Access Point receive its DHCP IP Address?
A. from either the AP's internal DHCP server or an external DHCP server
B. it cannot receive a DHCP IP Address and a static IP Address is required
C. through an external DHCP server
D. with the AP's internal DHCP server
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which 802.11n frequency ranges are supported on the MSM422? (Select two.)
A. 2.4 GHz
B. 5 GHz
C. 20 MHz
D. 72 MHz
E. 105.7 MHz
Answer: A,B

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NO.8 If a DHCP server does not exist on a network, the Ethernet port on an autonomous mode
MSM Access Point would be assigned a default IP address of 192.168.1.1. Given this information,
which statement is correct?
A. An internal DHCP server in the MSM Access Point can be configured to assign any appropriate IP
Address to the port.
B. An internal dip switch can be configured to change the default IP address of the Ethernet port.
C. An autonomous mode MSM Access Point can be ordered with the option of a different Default IP
Address that could be assigned to its Ethernet port.
D. Without an external DHCP server, the port will always remain at 192.168.1.1.
Answer: D

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NO.9 The MSM730 has 4 Ethernet ports; one for the LAN and another for the Internet. What is the
function of the other two Ethernet ports?
A. CLI access
B. client connectivity
C. reserved for future expansion
D. uplinks
Answer: C

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NO.10 ProCurve's RF Planner is made specifically for which operating system?
A. Linux
B. MAC OS
C. Microsoft Windows
D. Sun Microsystems Solaris
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S23
Exam Name: HP (Design and Implementation of HP Systems Insight Manager v5.3)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 62 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Click Next or More to continue.
Click the Task button.
Answer:

NO.2 Which protocol does HP SIM 5.3 use during the discovery process to help in the discovery of Linux
nodes that do not have Insight Agents?
A. DMI
B. SSH
C. WBEM
D. WMI
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which types of tools can HP SIM run on managed systems? (Select three.)
A. tools that are Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) aware
B. tools that are Secure Shell (SSH) aware
C. tools that are Single Sign-on (SSO) aware
D. tools that are web launch aware (WLA)
E. tools that are single-system aware (SSA)
F. tools that are multiple-system aware (MSA)
Answer: DEF

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NO.4 A Vulnerability and Patch Management (VPM) comprehensive vulnerability scan identifies
vulnerabilities in which categories? (Select three.)
A. spam mailing
B. password cracker
C. man-in-the-middle attacks
D. viruses and worms
E. port checking
F. firmware revisions
Answer: BDE

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NO.5 On which platform does HP SIM support the installation of an Oracle database?
A. HP-UX and Linux only
B. Microsoft Windows 2003 and 2008
C. all operating systems supported on HP servers
D. Linux only
Answer: C

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Exam Code: HP0-S26
Exam Name: HP (Integrating and Managing HP ProLiant ML/DL/SL Servers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 116 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which changes to clustering are included in Windows Server 2008? (Select two.)
A. Clusters are x64-based and now support up to 32 nodes.
B. Cluster nodes can have their IP addresses assigned by DHCP.
C. Geographically dispersed clusters cannot span subnets.
D. Failover clusters are built around a more resilient and customizable quorum model.
E. GUID partition table (GPT) disks are not supported.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 You are adding a second Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) Small Form Factor (SFF) drive cage to a ProLiant
ML350 G6 Server. The server has a Smart Array 410i Controller. The customer has ordered the cage,
cables and drives. Why are you unable to complete this task?
A. The second drive cage installation requires a SAS expander board.
B. The second drive cage installation requires all eight inch SAS cables.
C. The SA410i does not support this configuration.
D. The SA410i must have a 512MB with BBWC option installed.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which agent is used for HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP) on Windows Server 2008?
A. DAClient
B. AClient
C. DAgent
D. ADLAgent
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which tool is best suited to replicate the RBSU settings across multiple ProLiant DL300 Series servers?
A. HP SIM
B. RDU
C. ACU
D. CONREP
Answer: D

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NO.5 How does the standard warranty on a ProLiant DL165 Server differ from that of a ProLiant DL320
Server?
A. There is no difference in warranty terms between the DL165 and DL320.
B. No onsite support for DL165; 3 years onsite support for the DL320
C. 3 years parts and labor for the DL165; 1 year parts and labor for the DL320
D. 1 year parts and labor for the DL165; 3 years parts and onsite labor for the DL320
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which utility is used to create an output file containing information about the disk controller order on a
reference server that can be used for replication?
A. ORCA
B. CONREP
C. ADU
D. CPQDISK
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which statement is true about SAN/Fabric Switch Care Pack service level support?
A. It need not be uplifted to match existing storage or server service level.
B. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by separate Care
Packs.
C. SAN/Fabric switches, ProLiant c-Class BladeSystems and enclosures are covered by the Care Pack.
D. It does not cover the Ethernet interconnect and virtual connect modules.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which services do you need installed to use the HP Insight Rapid Deployment software (RDP)
Deployment Server Web Console? (Select two.)
A. ASP.NET.
B. WAIK 2.1
C. Framework.net 2.0
D. Framework.net 1.1
E. IIS
Answer: A,E

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NO.9 A customer wants you to create a third LUN on a connected MSA2000. After you do this, what must you
do to make it visible to the host within the Windows operating system? (Select two.)
A. Enable BIOS on the first and (if available) second fc-adapter.
B. Present the LUN with the WWN number of the FC card installed in the server.
C. Boot the connected server from SmartStart 8.x, use Array Configuration Utility, and allow the host to
access the new LUN.
D. Restart your server or select Disk Management, right-click, and select Rescan Disk.
E. Add the new LUN-WWN to zoning of the fc-fabric.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 What does an HP SIM CMS running on Windows use to record various error, warning, and informational
events that occur during runtime?
A. Windows Event Log
B. HP SIM Select Options ? Events
C. System Management Homepage
D. CPQSetup.log
Answer: A

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Exam Code: HP2-T17
Exam Name: HP (Servicing HP Proliant ML/DL/SL Servers)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 120 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What information does the ADU provide? (Select three.)
A.firmware version
B.OEM hard drive vendor
C.RAID stripe size
D.Hardware Error Logs
E.Smart Array driver version
Answer: ACD

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NO.2 Which type of internal slot has been added to HP ProLiant G6-based servers for use by hypervisors?
A.Extreme Digital (xD)
B.Secure Digital (SD)
C.Compact Flash (CF)
D.PCI-express (PCIe)
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is required to support each installed HP 10Gb network adapter in a ProLiant server?
A.dedicated 2GB RAM
B.quad-core CPU
C.QuickPath architecture
D.internal PCI-X 2.0
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which capability is a key improvement in HP ProLiant G6 servers using Dynamic Power Management?
A.ability to spin down idle disk drives
B.ability to put CPU sockets to sleep and wake up real time
C.ability to power down unused PCI-e slots
D.ability to put CPU cores to sleep and wake up real time
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which operating system has support for the ZFS filesystem?
A.Sun Solaris
B.Windows Server 2008 R2 x64 Enterprise Edition
C.Novell NetWare 6.5
D.Novell SLES 10
Answer: A

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NO.6 For the Intel x5570 Series processors in the HP ProLiant SL2x170z G6, what does the letter "x"
preceding the processor model number indicate?
A.extreme performance
B.lower wattage
C.turbo boost performance
D.high performance/wattage
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which key functions are under the control of the new ProLiant OnBoard Administrator found in every
ProLiant G6 server? (Select two.)
A.power and thermal optimization
B.automated firmware upgrade
C.extended health monitoring
D.TPM module management
Answer: AC

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NO.8 A server has four disks, each 146GB in size. They are configured as RAID 5. What is the logical drive
size presented to the operating system?
A.292GB
B.438GB
C.584GB
D.730GB
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which processors use hyperthreading? (Select two.)
A.Intel single core processors
B.AMD dual core processors
C.AMD quad core processors
D.Intel dual core processors
Answer: AD

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NO.10 Which components are under the control of Dynamic Power Management on Intel Xeon 5500 Series
(Nehalem) based servers? (Select two.)
A.chipset
B.PCI-e cards
C.hard drives
D.CPU
E.fans
Answer: AD

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NO.11 How many memory channels are there in a 2 processor DDR3-based server.?
A.2 channels
B.3 channels
C.4 channels
D.6 channels
Answer: D

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NO.12 Which RAID level does Smart Array Advanced Pack (SAAP) employ to enhance performance,
reliability and availability?
A.RAID 1+0
B.RAID 5
C.RAID 6+0
D.RAID 5+0
Answer: C

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NO.13 In which log are Array POST errors recorded?
A.Windows Event Log
B.Integrated Management Log
C.IPMI Log
D.Onboard Administrator Log
Answer: B

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NO.14 A customer has an HP ProLiant G6 server, which meets the minimum requirements of 4 disks. They
have purchased the Smart Array Advanced Pack. The customer complains that RAID 6 is not displayed
as an option in ORCA.
What must be done to correct the problem?
A.The license key must be entered in RBSU.
B.The license key must be activated over the Internet.
C.The license key must be entered in ORCA.
D.The license key must be entered in iLO RBSU.
Answer: C

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NO.15 On Intel Xeon 5500 Series (Nehalem) based servers, where is the memory controller located?
A.processor socket
B.processor core
C.HyperTransport Bus
D.Front Side Bus
Answer: B

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Exam Code: HP0-Y25
Exam Name: HP (Building HP ProCurve Enterprise Mobility Solutions)
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Total Q&A: 56 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 A company is using 802.1X authentication with dynamic VLANs on its wired network. The company has
three user groups that are assigned to VLANs 10, 20, and 30. You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility
Solution with an MSM760 Access Controller and 50 APs. On the MSM
Controller, you have configured a VSC that enforces 802.1X authentication. How do you continue to
create a consistent experience for users on wired and wireless connections?
A. Bind the VSC to the APs' group with VLANs 10, 20, and 30 as egress VLANs.
B. Enable the dynamic VLANs option in the VSC, and bind the VSC to the APs' group.
C. Configure VLANs 10, 20 and 30 on the MSM APs' bridge ports, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for
each VLAN.
D. Bind the VSC to the APs' group, and tag the MSM APs' switch ports for VLANs 10, 20, and 30.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Wireless stations in a VSC run voice applications (among other applications). You want voice traffic to
be prioritized as it travels from the AP to the wireless stations. What is needed to meet this requirement?
(select two.)
A. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to VSC very High.
B. WMM adevertising must be enabled on the VSC.
C. The VSC priority mechanism must be set to IP QoS.
D. An IP QoS profile must select the voice traffic and set it to Very High.
E. The wireless stations must support WMM.
Answer: C,D

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NO.3 You are implementing a public access solution on the MSM Controller because your company wants to
grant visitors access to the internet. The company has only two VLANs: VLANs 1 for users and VLAN 2
for servers. VLAN 2 also includes the internet connection. You connect the MSM APs and the MSM
Controller's LAN port to VLAN 1 and the controller's internet port to VLAN
2. You must protect the company's workstations on VLAN 1 from unauthorized access by
unauthenticated guests. What must you do no the MSM Controller?
A. Create an unauthenticated user ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the controller.
B. On the VSC for guests, enable the option that terminates WPA at the controller.
C. On the VSC for guests, enable the wireless security filter that limits wireless traffic to the controller.
D. Add an entry to the default site ACL that prohibits access to all of the VLANs except the
controller.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are setting up an RF Manager solution for a university that is implementing a new wireless network.
Hackers have tried to compromise the wired network, and you expect attacks to increase exponentially
when the university implements its wireless network. When you configure the intrusion protection setting,
you want to ensure that the sensors can protect against threats on three channels at a time. Which
intrusion protection setting would you select?
A. Block
B. Disrupt
C. Interrupt
D. Disconnect
Answer: C

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NO.5 Click the Exhibit button.
A wireless user associates with a VSC. The following settings are configured on the VSC:
Use Ser ice Controller for Authentication = Enabled
Use Ser ice Controller for Access control = Enabled
VSC ingress mapping=SSID
Client data tunnel=Disabled
Wireless security filters=Disabled
HTML authentication= Enabled
VSC egress mapping=Default
In the VSC binding for the group to which the users' AP belong, there is no egress VLAN setting.
The network topology is shown in the exhibit. Which resources are available to the guest before the guest
logs in and becomes an authorized user?
A. resources available on the public Internet.
B. resources available on the public internet and in VLAN 1.
C. resources in VLANs 1, 2, and 3.
D. resources in VLAN 1 only.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You must implement access control for your wireless users on a solution-wide level. You have decided
on the access control strategy recommended for guests and have already begun to customize public
access settings. Which option must you select in the VSC for these users?
A. use Service Controller for: Access control (centralized access control)
B. Client data tunnel
C. 802.1X authentication
D. wireless protection set to WPA
Answer: A

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NO.7 You are deploying an Enterprise Mobility Solution for a company that is concerned about
employees picking up viruses on their laptops and the introducing those viruses into the network when
they connect wirelessly. To deal with this issue, you are planning to deploy IDM and Windows Access
Protection (NAP) as an endpoint integrity solution. Which method of implementing access control on the
VSC provides the best option to meet this requirement?
A. Public access control.
B. Centralized access control.
C. 802.1X-based access control.
D. Health-based access control.
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which devices provide the data integrity and privacy that create a trusted network infrastructure in an
Enterprise Mobility Solution?
A. RF Manager and sensors.
B. RF Planner and sensors
C. MSM Controllers and APs
D. MSM Controllers and identity Driven Manager (IDM)
Answer: C

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NO.9 During RF planning, why is it necessary to evaluate the types of applications your wireless network
must support?
A. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
encryption.
B. Some applications are associated with sensitive data, and you must plan whether to implement
wireless threat management.
C. Some applications are more popular, and only a certain number of users are supported by each
wireless AP radio.
D. Some applications require more bandwidth, and each wireless AP radio has a certain amount of
bandwidth.
Answer: D

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NO.10 What is a potential risk of enabling the RSSI-based classification feature in an Authorized WLAN plicy?
A. RF Manager might classify your own APs as Rogue APs because their transmit power is too high and
take action against them.
B. RF Manager must rely exclusively on RSSI to detect harmful devices? Locations, instead of drawing on
network detectors' findings. This might make the prediction less accurate.
C. RF Manager might classify legitimate APs owned by nearby companies as Rogue APs and take action
against them.
D. Sensors might decide that they should not take action against a potentially harmful device because its
RSSI is low and the device might still be a risk.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: Hp2-E24
Exam Name: HP (HP Service Sales Profession)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 78 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which approximate fraction of all customer helpdesk calls relates to commercial printers?
A. more than 75%
B. up to 50%
C. less than 10%
D. between 10% and 20%
Answer: D

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NO.2 Travel Next Business Day response HP Care Pack service provides mobiles computer users
with a support solution for HP Notebook products. Where can it be claimed?
A. in listed countries across all regions
B. in the country where the notebook was purchased
C. in EMEA
D. in the region where the notebook was purchased
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which value do HP services provide to the customers in addition to the warranty?
A. increased product reliability
B. advanced ormore timely response
C. free phone access numbers
D. 4-hour call-to-repair commitment
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which HP Care Pack do you advise for HP Scanjets if your customer has critical business
needs?
A. 4-hour Onsite Response, 24¡Á7
B. Next Day Onsite
C. Next Day Exchange
D. 4-hour Onsite Response, 9¡Á5
Answer: D

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NO.5 What prevents a 5-year HP Care Pack from usage as a post-warranty Care Pack？
A. The 5-year HP Care Packcan not be registered after the standard warranty period has
expired.
B. The maximum Care Pack lifetime is three years.
C. Post-warranty service requires individual contracts.
D. The main warranty is threeyears, consequently a 2-year Care Pack is required.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which lifetime warranty level is included when selling an HP ProCurve 2910aI-24G Switch?
A. Next-Business-Day
B. Onsite-Parts-Exchange
C. SupportPlus
D. SupportPlus 24
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which area in covered if we sell improvement of timeliness of problem resolutions?
A. increase IT quality
B. improve agility
C. mitigate risk
D. manage costs
Answer: D

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NO.8 Your customer owns HP ProCurve Network Management software. How long are maintenance
releases available at no additional cost?
A. for as long as the customer owns the product
B. for one year, starting at the date of the purchase
C. for a period of 90 days
D. until the next version is released
Answer: A

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NO.9 Which feature do HP Care Pack service offers provide?
A. hardware and software maintenance
B. hardware maintenance only
C. software maintenance only
D. parts-only coverage
Answer: A

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NO.10 Why is it more effective to purchase an HP Care Pack support service than to purchase extra
printers in case of failure? (Select two.)
A. It reduces uncontrolled internal cost for logistic, installation, follow-up.
B. New printers imply new settings for the users.
C. Internal batteries may discharge while on shelf.
D. A printer should be installed only by an HP certified service technician.
E. HP printers cannot be moved once they are operational.
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which services should be quoted by default with each storge platform that does not include
bundled sercices? (Select two.)
A. 1-year HP Care Pack
B. HP Proactive Service
C. HP Installation and Startup Service
D. 3-year HP Care pack
Answer: C,D

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NO.12 Which HP service is classified as reactive?
A. Data Center Service
B. Support Plus 24
C. Education Service
D. Critical Service
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which service provides the most complete range of deliverables?
A. 6-hour Call-to-Repair
B. 4-hour 24¡Á7
C. Proactive 24
D. Next Business Day on-site
Answer: C

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NO.14 You offer either basic Installation or Installation & Start-up Care Pack services to your
customers. Which operations constitute the distinction between the two offerings? (Select two)
A. operation and 9¡Á5softerware support verification
B. coordination of network installation and start-upactivitises
C. configuration download
D. confirmation of software revisions and device cabling
E. building the configurationfile
Answer: B,D

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NO.15 Your HP ProLiant customer is looking for a single solution for hardware and openrating system
technical support services. Which HP Care Pack categories provide hardware and O/S
techinal support services in one part number? (Select two.)
A. Support Plus 24
B. Hardware Services 6-Hour Call to Repair On-site Service
C. Installation & Start-up Services
D. Support Plus
E. Hardware Services On-site Service
Answer: A,D

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Exam Code: Hp2-E29
Exam Name: HP (Planning and Designing HP SMB Solutions)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 166 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 Which HP software application is required to manage an HP StorageWorks Enterprise Virtual Array
solution?
A. HPStorageWorks Secure Manager
B. HPStorageWorks Command View EVA
C. HP Storage Essentials SRM Software Suite
D. HP Continuous Access EVA
Answer: B

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3.Which component in an HP Data Protector solution runs the core software and contains the Data
Protector database?
A. media server
B. console server
C. cell manager
D. media manager
Answer: C

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4.A customer wants to use HP Systems Insight Manager (HP SIM) to secure their management
environment. Which technologies are used with HP SIM accomplish this task? (Select two.)
A. SSL
B. WMI
C. DMI
D. SNMP
E. SSH
Answer: A,B

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5.When a G6 blade solution includes Flex-10 Virtual Connect Ethernet modules, what are possible
bandwidth configurations for a single Flex-NIC on port 1? (Select two.)
A. 10Mb
B. 300Mb
C. 750Mb
D. 8Gb
E. 16Gb
Answer: B,D

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6.Which feature becomes available when a G6 blade solution includes Flex-10 Virtual Connect Ethernet
module?
A. support for port aggregation for each blade increases to 10 ports
B. blade NICs auto-negotiate to 10/100Mb bandwidth
C. embedded Flexible NICs for each blade increases to 10 NICs
D. bandwidth for each network card can be dynamically changed from 100Mb up to 10Gb
Answer: D

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7.A customer wants to order several ProLiant servers as virtual machine hosts. Which HP iVirtualization
solutions are available to the customer? (Select two.)
A. Red Hat Linux Enterprise Server
B. VMware ESX 4i
C. CitrixXenServer
D. VMware Server
E. Microsoft Windows Virtual Server 2005
F. Microsoft Virtual Hyper-V
Answer: B,C

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8.Which statement is true about processor cache?
A. it reduces the risk of downtime.
B. It enables floating point processing.
C. It reduces the amount of time needed for the processor to access data.
D. it reduces risk of data loss.
Answer: C

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9.Which RAID level is able to withstand any two simultaneous hard drive failures?
A. RAID 1
B. RAID 1+0
C. RAID 6
D. RAID 5
Answer: C

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10.Which feature included in the firmware of D2D Backup System eliminates redundant data during
backups by saving a single copy of identical data, replacing any further instance with pointers back to the
one copy?
A. dynamic reallocation
B. data retention
C. deduplication
D. low bandwidth replication
Answer: C

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11.Which ProLiant servers have a maximum of four processor sockets? (Select two.)
A. ML370
B. BL860c
C. DL585
D. BL680C
E. DL785
Answer: D,E

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12.Which component from HP Insight Foundation Suite for ProLiant can be used for array configuration
and guided installation of the supported operating system?
A. SmartStart CD
B. Management DVD
C. Firmware Maintenance CD
D. Insight Software DVD
Answer: A

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13.What additional functionality does HP Insight Remote Support provide to customers using HP SIM?
(Select two.)
A. remote event notification and forwarding
B. integrated warranty tracking and online remote support
C. remote configuration and repair of management agents
D. integration with HP Insight License Manager
E. remoteiLO 2 graphical console access
Answer: A,B

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14.Your customer is consolidating his environment on four ProLiant servers running VMware ESX 4.0.
Which HP insight Control functionality can help him to convert physical machines to a virtual machine
form on ESX 4.0 servers?
A. performance management
B. server deployment
C. server migration
D. virtual machine management
Answer: C

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15.Which Insight Control component identifies and prevents potentially critical problems on ProLiant
servers by providing real-time hardware event monitoring and secure event submission to HP Support?
A. HP Software Event Subscription
B. HP Insight Performance Manager module
C. Version Control Repository and Version Control Agent
D. HP Insight Remote Support
Answer: D

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16.What does Dynamic Processor Resilience enhance?
A. data security
B. server availability
C. fast clustering failover
D. floating point performance
Answer: B

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17.Which tape technology allows hardware-based encryption?
A. HP SuperDLTtape II 600GB
B. DLTVS160
C. SDLT600
D. LTO-4
Answer: D

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18.Which HP disk-based storage solution provides both unattended backups and rapid restore of data for
LAN-based servers, and can also emulate popular tape libraries tape drives?
A. HP Virtual Library System (VLS)
B. HP Enterprise Virtual Array (EVA)
C. HP Modular Smart Array (MSA) 2000 G2
D. Removable Disk Backup System (RDX)
Answer: A

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19.What enables resiliency in an HP Converged Infastructure? (Select two.)
A. power, cooling, and interconnect capabilities of the HPBiadeSystem c3000 enclosure
B. visualization products like VMware or Microsoft Hyper-V solutions
C. HPStorageWorks data protection solutions
D. modular building blocks providing maximum flexibility for scalability and customization
E. HP Insight Software components with appropriate services
Answer: D,E

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20.Which HP software component can be used to install multiple ProLiant servers quickly and predictably
in an unattended fashion using scripts and systems images?
A. HP Remote Deployment Utility
B. HPIgnite-UX
C. HP Server Migration Software forProLiant servers
D. HP Insight Rapid Deployment software
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-K14
Exam Name: HP (Supporting HP ProLiant Storage Server Workgroup Products)
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Total Q&A: 61 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 You are at a customer site to repair an HP StorageWorks 1200 All-in-One (AiO) Storage System in
a redundant AiO environment.
Which data replication solution can be implemented to replicate data between the two AiO
systems?
A. HP StorageWorks Storage Mirroring
B. HP Continuous Access for SMB storage
C. HP Data Replication Manager for NAS products
D. HP StorageWorks Fast Recovery Solution 2003 AiO
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which networking technology includes network failover?
A. NIC Teaming
B. TCP Offload Engine
C. multi-protocol bridging
D. Network Acceleration Cards
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which storage infrastructure typically uses file level data access
A. Internet SCSI
B. storage area network
C. direct attached storage
D. network attached storage
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which term describes two or more interconnected nodes that present a single virtual server to the
network?
A. cluster
B. NIC team
C. Multipathing
D. fault tolerance
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which solution enables a customer to maintain a continuous replica of data on a second storage
server?
A. Microsoft Cluster Service
B. HP OpenView Data Protector
C. Volume Shadow Copy Service
D. HP OpenView Storage Mirroring
Answer: D

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Exam Code: HP2-T16
Exam Name: HP (Industry Standard Architecture and Technology)
Free One year updates to match real exam scenarios, 100% pass and refund Warranty.
Total Q&A: 123 Questions and Answers
Last Update: 2013-09-30

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NO.1 What is the virtual machine instance commonly called?
A. guest
B. host
C. partition
D. hypervisor
Answer: A

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NO.2 What can you do to optimize memory performance?
A. Enable Advanced Memory Buffer.
B. Rearrange existing memory to allow interleaving.
C. Implement memory caching
D. Configure processor interleaving.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system? (Select Three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new processor with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE

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NO.4 A customer is running a single-threaded application and experiences performance problems connected
with the processor subsystem. How would you solve this issue?
A. Change processor affinity to enable splitting single threads into multiple threads
B. Add additional processors
C. Upgrade the processor with a higher frequency processor.
D. Replace the processor with a higher stepping processor
E. Upgrade the processor with a multi-core processor.
F. Enable the integrated memory controller of the process at the BIOS.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which technology should you implement for disk redundancy?
A. SATA
B. NTFS
C. RAID
D. SCSI
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which port type does a host server use when connected to an FC-SAN?
A. N_Port
B. E_Port
C. G_Port
D. F_Port
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which major challenges of I/O virtualization do Virtual Machine Managers need to address? (Select
two)
A. WWN virtualization
B. DMA virtualization
C. IRQ virtualization
D. port virtualization
E. MAC virtualization
Answer: AE

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NO.8 Into which range do reserved TCP/IP server ports generally fall?
A. 0-1023
B. 1-512
C. 21-80
D. 1024-8080
Answer: A

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NO.9 What must you check prior to adding another processor to an existing system.? (Select Three)
A. amount of memory in the system
B. compatibility of the new processor with existing processors
C. firmware requirements for the new processor
D. number of users currently logged into the system
E. number of processors the operating system supports
F. weight of the new processor
Answer: BCE

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NO.10 What does a system require to achieve PCI Hot Plug capability? (Select three)
A. hot-plug fans
B. hog-plug operating systems
C. hot-plug adapter drivers
D. hot-plug memory
E. hot-plug system tray
F. hot-plug platform
Answer: BCF

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NO.11 How does single-mode fiber compare with multimode fiber?
A. Single mode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss.
B. Multimode fiber has a higher bandwidth and lower loss.
C. Multimode fiber is more often used for long-distance telecommunications.
D. Single-mode fiber has higher loss and lower bandwidth.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which command can be used to verify connectivity to a client machine?
A. ping
B. nslookup
C. nbstat
D. ipconfig
Answer: A

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NO.13 What happens when you install a 66Mhz, 32-bit PCI card in a 33MHz, 64-bit PCI slot?
A. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 33MHz in 64-bit mode.
B. The 66MHz, 32-bit card operates at 66MHz in 32-bit mode.
C. All 33MHz, 64-bit cards on the PCI bus operate like 33MHz, 32-bit cards.
D. The 66MHz card operates at 33MHz.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Why should server firmware be updated to the most recent version? (Select two)
A. to maintain a valid warranty
B. to fix problems from earlier versions
C. to support new features
D. to refresh changes that a user has edited in the existing firmware
E. to support leagcy features
Answer: BC

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NO.15 Which Network Operating System (NOS) filesystem allows you to set security on invididual files?
A. FAT32
B. FAT
C. NTFS
D. CDFS
Answer: C

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NO.16 Your RAID 5 array on a Smart Array sustains a drive failure. A host spare replaces the failed drive
and rebuilds successfully. After replacing the failed drive with a new drive, what happens next?
A. The spare drive replicates its data to the new drive and both work as a mirror until you evict the spare
drive.
B. The new drive stays offline until you assign it to the array, at which point it automatically takes the place
of the spare drive.
C. The new drive re-assumes its place in the RAID set and after data rebuild is complete, the drive that
was the spare once again becomes a hot spare drive.
D. The new drive becomes a spare drive and you must go to the ACU to remove the old spare drive and
then re-add the new drive to the array.
Answer: C

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NO.17 You are comparing similar versions of Intel Xeon and AMD Opteron processors. Which statements are
true about these processors? (Select two)
A. Opteron processors use a Northbridge that operates at core bus speed.
B. AMD Opteron processors are optimized for virtualization and AMD-V technology.
C. An Intel Xeon processor uses HyperTransport link to access its memory.
D. Intel Xeon processors are optimized for virtualization with Intel VT technology.
E. An AMD Opteron processors uses QuickPath Interconnect to access its memory.
Answer: BD

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NO.18 Which server filters outgoing network requests?
A. FTP
B. Proxy
C. DNS
D. WINS
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which Network Operating System (NOS) security practices are commonly used when planning server
management? (Select three)
A. disable FTP and SSH
B. install hardware and software firewalls
C. disable unused TCP/IP service ports
D. use easy to remember password
E. enforce regular password changes
Answer: BCE

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NO.20 Which statements are true about AMD 2P or 4P system architecture? (Select three)
A. Requests for memory access are handle by the Northbridge ASIC.
B. Memory must be installed in banks corresponding to the installed processors.
C. Each processor has its own memory controller
D. The maximum amount of memory can be installed, regardless of the number of installed processors.
E. Requests for memory access are handle directly by the corresponding processor and relayed through
the HyperTransport link.
F. Communications between CPU and memory is handle through the QuickPath Interconnect.
Answer: BCE

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