2013年6月29日星期六

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Exam Code: 000-M157

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Rational Foundational (IT) Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Which software delivery platform helps align business and software delivery objectives by ensuring
greater visibility, clarity, and accountability across projects.?
A. Architecture and Construction
B. Change and Release Management
C. Integrated Requirements Management
D. Process and Portfolio Management
Answer: B

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NO.2 How do Architecture, Design & Construction (ADC) IT products allow your customers to increase
product quality while cutting costs?
A. through automated requirements generation
B. by finding errors early through continual analysis
C. through the orderly formation and maintenance of KRG logs
D. by creation of a functional prototype through staged implementation
Answer: B

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NO.3 Research indicates that 75% of attacks are at the application level. What percent of the security budget
is set aside for application security?
A. only 10%
B. only 25%
C. only 35%
D. only 55%
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M88

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Unica Enterprise Marketing Operations Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 In a Unica Marketing Operations Project Details view, what tab displays all modifications made to the
Project or Request since its creation?
A.Summary
B.Tracking
C.Analytics
D.Budget
Answer: C

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NO.2 In Unica Marketing Operations, where does a user - who has permission ?go to view a Plan's status,
Program areas, and security policy?
A.Settings menu
B.Attachments tab
C.Summary tab
D.Project home page
Answer: C

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NO.3 In Unica Marketing Operations, what type of budget planning is particularly useful if a plan has
predictable expenses from year to year?
A.Bottom up budget.
B.Top down budget.
C.Master budget.
D.Cash budget.
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following data redistribution methods generally results in the fastest query times?
A.Co-located joins
B.Single redistribution joins
C.Double redistribution joins
D.Broadcast joins
Answer: A

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NO.5 In Unica Marketing Operations, how many templates can a customer have for digital assets?
A.One
B.Three
C.Five
D.Ten
Answer: A

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NO.6 In Unica Marketing Operations, what is/are the key capability/capabilities for Accounts?
A.Define the hierarchy of accounts and subaccounts.
B.Fund or allocate money to the account, at the beginning of a fiscal period.
C.Track estimated and actual withdrawals from those accounts, by time period.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.7 In Unica Marketing Operations, which of the following is a requirement for linked Programs and Plans?
A.Must have the same owner.
B.Must have the same security policy.
C.Must have the same status.
D.Must have the same effective date.
Answer: B

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NO.8 In Unica Marketing Operations, where does a user go to view the marketing object types for a Project?
A.In the Workflow.
B.In the Project Summary Tab.
C.In the marketing object template.
D.On the marketing object list page.
Answer: D

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NO.9 In Unica Marketing Operations, a user can link to a Campaign only if:
A.The user is an administrator.
B.The user has both Unica Marketing Operations and Unica Campaign installed.
C.The user has Campaign permissions.
D.The user sets the Project to Linked status.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In Unica Marketing Operations, a user can generate single-object reports, such as Revision History or
Approval Responses.Where are these reports available for Projects, Programs and Plans?
A.Workflow tab
B.Summary tab
C.Custom tab
D.Analysis tab
Answer: D

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Exam Code: 000-604

Exam Name: IBM (IBM System z Technical V5 )

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NO.1 A new customer has approached a System z Technical Specialist to help them upgrade their older
System z mainframe. Growth is minimal. Which of the following is needed to create an initial z114
configuration?
A. Energy consumption
B. Disk Storage Growth Rates
C. Installed Base System Report
D. The number of distributed servers installed
Answer: C

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NO.2 During which of the following activities do the customer and the technical specialist define post
installation support?
A. During the TDA (Solution Assurance)
B. When establishing the system ship date
C. When configuring the System z using eConfig
D. During the installation of the equipment by the CE
Answer: A

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NO.3 A customer technical staff has been briefed on migration to a z114 or z196. They are discussing the new
features with the System z Technical Specialist. Which of the following customer statements is incorrect
and must be corrected by the Technical Specialist.?
A. Addition and removal of z196 I/O cage is disruptive
B. There is Plan Ahead option available for the I/O drawers
C. The I/O drawers can be added or removed non-disruptively
D. The correct mix of I/O cage and drawers is configured based on the number and type of I/O features
ordered
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which new z196 feature provides significant error detection and correction capabilities for bit, lane,
DRAM, DIMM socket and memory channel failures?
A. RAS
B. RAID
C. RACEv
D. RAIM
Answer: D

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NO.5 A System z customer is planning to move their data center with several existing System z servers to a
new space without a raised floor. Which of the following requirements should the technical specialist
discuss with the customer?
A. Ordering the height reduction feature if needed
B. Top Exit Cabling Option is required for all the CPCs
C. Confirm all the System z servers are z9 BC, z10 BC or z114
D. Confirm the new installation is compliant with the Installation Manual for Physical Plugging
Answer: C

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Exam Code: LOT-925

Exam Name: IBM (Installing and Configuring IBM Lotus Notes and Domino 8.5)

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NO.1 Directory assistance in Lotus Domino 8 enables you to specify when a secondary directory must only
be used for authentication. This provides which of the following features?
A. This blocks email from being forwarded to adjacent domains
B. This avoids NAMELookups to reduce the number of mbiguous Name dialog boxes
C. This help you validate your choice of host name for receiving authentication requests
D. This scans group member lists to ensure that each member exists in an available directory that is
configured in directory assistance
Answer: B

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NO.2 Edison, the Domino Administrator, wants to enforce file security on HTML and Image files. Which one
of the following should he do?
A. Enforce ECLs
B. Create File Protection documents
C. Use Protect Directories in the HTTPD.CNF files
D. Domino does not allow security enforcement on HTML and Image files
Answer: B

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NO.3 Chaz, the Domino administrator, has noticed performance issues when LDAP searches are being
performed against the Domino Directory. Which of the following is the best offered solution to improve
performance?
A. Extend the LDAP schema to add new attributes
B. Create a full text index of the Domino Directory
C. Configure Directory Assistance to load all users into memory in advance
D. Delete the ($LDAP) view in the Domino Directory and let it rebuild automatically
Answer: B

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NO.4 Given the following scenario, what will occur if the sender attempts to recall a message after 10 days
have elapsed since it was originally sent to the recipient: - The sender and recipient are on the same mail
server - The server is configured to allow message recall - The recipient is a member of a group policy
that allows message recall - The sender is a member of a group policy that does not allow message recall
- The sender has an explicit policy that allows message recall Message recall is allowed for 14 days for
the sender - Message recall is allowed for 8 days for the recipient
A. The sender will be allowed to recall the sent message
B. The sender will not be allowed to recall the sent message
C. The sender will receive a non-delivery report back stating the message recall failed
D. The sender will be prompted that they have exceeded the maximum time allowed for message recall
Answer: A

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NO.5 Jose set up Web authentication using primary and secondary directories. Which one of the following
describes the order in which he set up directories to be searched?
A. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directories. This is the only option available.
B. Domino primary directory, then either Domino or LDAP secondary directories. The administrator can
specify the order of secondary searches.
C. LDAP primary directory, then LDAP secondary directory, and then Domino secondary directories. This
is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
D. Domino primary directory, then Domino secondary directory, and then LDAP secondary directories.
This is the order in which secondary searches must be made.
Answer: B

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NO.6 While configuring an Internet Site document, Kira has left the option blank for which Domino server
hosts the site. What is the default action the server will perform with this option not configured?
A. The Internet Site will not be loaded on any Domino server
B. The Internet Site will be loaded on all Domino servers in the domain
C. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the first IP Address on the server
D. The Internet Site will only accept connections for the hostname in the server document
Answer: A

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NO.7 A Notes mail message is sent by Miguel to an Internet address through an adjacent Domino domain
over NRPC that then sends mail to the Internet over SMTP. Miguel is now attempting to recall the mail
message. Which of the following will be the result of his attempt?
A. He will receive an email that he cannot recall the email message
B. He will immediately receive a prompt that the message is not enabled for message recall
C. He will receive a message from the Internet recipients mail server that the message cannot be recalled
D. He will successfully recall the message if it is allowed in the server configuration and enabled in his
user policy
Answer: A

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NO.8 When creating the ID Vault for your domain, which of the following cannot be the name of the vault?
A. The name of the server the vault is created on
B. The name of the administrator creating the vault
C. The name of the group that will manage the id vault
D. The same as an organizational unit used in the Domino domain
Answer: D

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NO.9 In order for Peggy to establish alternate message recall settings on a per server basis, which of the
following is the best solution?
A. Configure the message recall settings in an organization level policy
B. Configure the message recall settings in each server's notes.ini file
C. Configure the message recall settings in each server configuration document
D. Configure the message recall settings in explicit policies and manually apply to users
Answer: C

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NO.10 John registered a new server. In which one of the following was the Server document placed?
A. NAMES.NSF
B. CERTLOG.NSF
C. CATALOG.NSF
D. DIRECTORY.NSF
Answer: A

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NO.11 Each time Melissa creates a certifier ID, Domino creates a certifier ID file and which of the following?
A. Password database
B. Certifier document
C. Password hash file
D. Certifier database
Answer: B

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NO.12 Tom set up a Domino domain and organization. Which one of the following describes the difference
between a Domino domain and a Domino organization?
A. There is no difference. Domains and organizations function in the same manner.
B. Domains refer to a company's hierarchical structure. Organizations refer to users who share a common
organizational certifier.
C. Domains are comprised of users and servers that share a common Domino Directory. Organizations
define security and naming conventions.
D. Domains define security and naming conventions. Organizations are comprised of users and servers
that share a common Domino Directory.
Answer: C

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NO.13 In order to create a Domino cluster, which rights are required for you to have to the Domino Directory.?
A. Editor access rights and ClusterModifier role
B. Reader access rights and ServerWriter and ServerManager roles
C. Designer access rights and ClusterCreator and ClusterModifier roles
D. Author access and Delete Documents rights and the ServerModifier and ServerCreator roles
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following are optional advanced services that must be enabled manually when first
configuring and installing the Domino server?
A. SMTP server
B. Agent Manager
C. Calendar Connector
D. DOLS (Domino Off-Line Services)
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which ONE of the following is required when setting up transactional logging on a server?
A. Enable Transactional Logging in the server document.
B. Add TRANS_LOG=1 to the server's NOTES.INI file.
C. Create a Transactional Logging document in the Directory Catalog.
D. Modify the NOTES.INI log settings to read LOG=LOG.NSF, TRANSLOG.NSF
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-M233

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Social Business Solution Sales Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 Online awareness allows place members to see when other members are online. Which of the following
products will enable online awareness in Lotus Quickr Places?
A. Lotus Connections
B. Lotus Sametime
C. LotusLive Meetings
D. IBM WebSphere Portal
Answer: B

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NO.2 What products and/or technologies incorporate ECM content in social and collaborative team A. IBM
Content Manager Collaboration Edition.
B. IBM FileNet Content Manager Collaboration Edition.
C. IBM Lotus Connections integrated w/IBM FileNet Content Manager or IBMContent Manager.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 What capabilities are available out of the box with the IBM Customer Experience Suite?
A. Social integration with Lotus Connections, analytics with Core Metrics, WebTrends, Unica and
Omniture, improved self service
B. Lotus Forms Product
C. Business Integration & Predictive Analytics
D. Websphere Commerce Suite
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which Connections service allows distributed teams to complete projects on time and meet goals?
A. Bookmarks
B. Activities
C. Profiles
D. Blogs
Answer: B

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NO.5 What is a documented benefit of a personalized web experience?
A. Lower initial cost to develop.
B. Increased conversion rate, increased engagement, broader audience.
C. Decreased complexity for users.
D. Increased viewership driven by product giveaways.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Companies may use social business to drive enhanced value in which of the following areas?
A. Quick, collaborative feedback from subject matter experts in their field.
B. To launch a global brand quickly
C. Enter new markets.
D. All of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.7 An organization is interested in IBM Cognos Business Intelligence, but they say they already have many
business intelligence and reporting systems in place.
What is the best way for the sales representative to respond?
A. Cognos allows organizations to select the appropriate roles that match theiruser behaviors.
B. Cognos solutions are designed with the business user in mind, freeing up ITresources and promoting
self service.
C. The Cognos Workforce Performance solution is tailored to the specific needsof HR, without requiring IT
to create these reports.
D. Cognos was designed to take information from multiple applications and pullit together into a single
platform.
Answer: B

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NO.8 How are people currently operating as we become a smarter planet?
A. Educated, aware and virtualized.
B. Instrumented, intelligent and interconnected.
C. Integratedaligned and virtualized.
D. Segmented, networked and simplified.
Answer: B

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NO.9 A social business is ______.
A. exciting, territorial and aggressive
B. educational, tenacious and negotiable
C. engaged, transparent and nimble
D. exclusive, technical and networked
Answer: C

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NO.10 Discussion Forums in Connections 3 can be created where.?
A. In your own Profile.
B. Only in Communities.
C. As part of an Activity.
D. Standalone and inside Communities.
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-N07

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Optimization Technical Mastery Test v1)

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NO.1 What does IBM ILOG CPLEX Optimization Studio enable?
A. Debugging optimization models.
B. Collaboration between planners.
C. Scenario sharing through a central repository.
D. Out of the box scalable enterprise deployment.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When should you use Constraint programming optimization.?
A. With detailed/complexity scheduling applications.
B. With real valued non linear applications.
C. With difficult combinatorial problems.
D. Both A and C.
Answer: D

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NO.3 IBM ILOG CPLEX CP Optimizer ______________________.
A. is not a component of IBM ILOG CPLEX Optimization Studio
B. can not be called to solve scenarios from IBM ILOG ODM Enterprise
C. can be called to solve scenarios from IBM ILOG ODM Enterprise
D. can only be called from it own C++, Java and .Net APIscan only be called from it? own C++, Java
and .Net APIs
Answer: C

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Exam Code: 000-M224

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Initiate Master Data Service Sales Mastery v1)

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NO.1 What is NOT a strategic value of an Enterprise Master Person Index (EMPI) solution?
A. increase profitability
B. maintain provider registry
C. ensure regulatory compliance
D. improve quality of patient care
Answer: A

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NO.2 What is used to determine the price of an IBM Initiate solution?
A. number of records managed
B. number of user licenses
C. number of CPUs
D. number of employees in the organization
Answer: B

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NO.3 What is NOT one of the reasons for the IBM acquisition of Initiate.?
A. consolidation
B. growth
C. investment
D. integration
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-583

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Content Analytics and Search V2.2 )

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NO.1 Which statement is NOT true?
A. Queries can be federated across multiple search collections.
B. Queries can be federated across multiple text analytics collections.
C. Faceted queries cannot be federated across multiple search collections.
D. When queries are federated across collections, the search quality is dependent on the scores that are
generated by individual collections.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which is NOT a supported operating system.?
A. AIX 5.3 (32-bit)
B. AIX 6.1 (64-bit)
C. Red Hat Enterprise Linux Advanced Server (32-bit)
D. Microsoft Windows Server 2003 Enterprise (32-bit)
Answer: A

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NO.3 How can you enable duplicate document detection for web content?
A. Select duplicate detection from the edit of a collection, under the search tab.
B. Select duplicate detection from the user preference on the search application.
C. Select duplicate detection from the edit of a collection, under parse and index tab.
D. Select the link-based ranking model and disable security during collection creation.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which cannot be configured in the search server administration?
A. The ability for users to issue wildcard queries.
B. The character which is used to indicate a wildcard query.
C. The ability for users to issue a wildcard query that returns all documents.
D. The number of potential matches the system will search for a wildcard query.
Answer: B

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NO.5 How does the IBM Classification Module annotater documents?
A. with tokens extracted from the documents
B. with entities identified and extracted from the documents
C. with relationships identified and extracted from the documents
D. with one or more known categories derived from the documents
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which statement is true for UNIX platforms?
A. The 'esbackup.sh' command must be executed with 'root' privileges.
B. While 'esbackup.sh' command is executing, administrator may continue to use the administrative
console.
C. If 'esbackup.sh' command takes too long to execute, the administrator may Ctrl-C out of it and retry at
a later time.
D. After 'esbackup.sh' command is completed, the backed up files can be used to restore a system with a
new installation.
Answer: D

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NO.7 What is the minimum number of servers for a distributed configuration?
A. One server; master server
B. Two servers; master and crawler servers
C. Three servers; master, crawler, and search servers
D. Four servers; master, crawler, document processor, and search servers
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement is NOT true?
A. The 'esadmin' command can stop a crawler.
B. The 'esadmin' command can start a crawler.
C. The 'esadmin' command can create a crawler.
D. The 'esadmin' command can monitor a crawler.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Why would you create a text analytics collection instead of a search collection?
A. when you want to use a custom annotator
B. when only search applications are required
C. when discovery and data mining are required
D. when searching for documents in more than one collection is required
Answer: C

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NO.10 How do you find the option to enable the named entity annotations?
A. Select the 'system' option and then the 'parse' tab in edit mode.
B. Open the text miner and select the 'named entity' facet then click on the facet tab.
C. You do not have to enable them, they are always active for text analytics collections.
D. Edit a collection, select the Parse and Index page, and click Configure document processing pipeline.
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which date format will ICA accept as a valid date field for the date facet?
A. MM/DD/YYYY
B. MM-DD-YYYY
C. YYYY-MM-DD
D. HH-SS-MM-DD-YYYY
Answer: C

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NO.12 Which statement is NOT true about synonym dictionaries?
A. Words are specific to a language with the synonym dictionary.
B. Only one synonym dictionary can be associated to a collection.
C. Synonym dictionary can be used to improve search of acronyms.
D. Add a synonym dictionary to the system, then associate it to a collection.
Answer: A

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NO.13 What is the method used to check the status of indexing on a collection?
A. Open the text miner and click on the 'dashboard' tab.
B. Using the administrative console, stop the indexer component and then click on the log tab.
C. In the administrative console, click on the 'general' tab, on the 'edit' icon and then on 'view collection
settings'.
D. In the administrative console, click on the 'parse and index' tab, on the 'monitor' icon and then click on
'details'.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which languages listed are supported for text analytics collections?
A. French, Arabic, Hindi, Malay
B. German, English, Polish, Greek
C. Hebrew, Italian, English, Russian
D. English, Spanish, Arabic, German
Answer: D

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NO.15 What does the acronym UIMA stand for?
A. Uniform IBM Marketechture Asset
B. Unstructured Industry Matrix Alliance
C. Unified Information Machine Architecture
D. Unstructured Information Management Architecture
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which documents from the collection are used to create the clustering proposal?
A. All of the documents in the index are used.
B. A random sample of the number that you specify
C. The first 1000 documents that were added to the index.
D. A round-robin alphabetically ordered sampling from each different crawler
Answer: B

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NO.17 When you map the common analysis structure to the index, what are you determining?
A. which users can invoke the REST API to find documents
B. which custom annotators will run in the document processing pipeline
C. the structure of the facet tree that will show up in the text miner application
D. which analysis results are indexed to enable search and text mining on them
Answer: D

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NO.18 What must you do after you create a list of synonyms in an XML file?
A. Convert the XML file to java.jar format.
B. Import the XML file using the administrative console.
C. Convert the XML file to a binary synonym dictionary.
D. Reimport the dictionary.dic file using the administrative console.
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is NOT a type of facet available in the search application?
A. flat facet
B. date range facet
C. hierarchical facet
D. auto-normalized facet
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following statements is true?
A. Only search collections can use hierarchical facets.
B. Search collections can be configured to export search results to a Cognos report.
C. Named entity annotators can be enabled in the administrative console for search collections.
D. Search collections can be configured to use multiple different document dates from the index in the
search application.
Answer: A

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Exam Code: 000-957

Exam Name: IBM (IBM XIV Storage System Technical Solutions V3)

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NO.1 Which of the following is a TRUE statement about XIV snapshots?
A. XIV snapshots utilize a copy-on-write design.
B. XIV snapshots copy data to create a snapshot.
C. XIV snapshots utilize a redirect-on-write design.
D. A maximum of 8000 snapshots can be created concurrently.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Using the exhibit as a reference, what are the two reasons the delete option cannot be selected for the
UDB storage pool? (Select two)
A. The pool contains volumes
B. The storage pool is locked
C. The pool contains snapshots
D. The storage pool is mapped to a cluster
E. The administrator has default privileges
Answer: A,C

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NO.3 For an XIV system, what is the recommended location for cooling tiles?
A. 1 tile in front of the system
B. 2 tiles directly beneath the system
C. 2 tiles directly in front of the system
D. 1 tile at the front and 1 at the rear of the system
Answer: C

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NO.4 Referring to the exhibit, what action must the administrator take to address the storage event on the
HR Portal storage group?
A. Resize volumes
B. Remove snapshots
C. Increase hard limit
D. Increase soft limit
Answer: C

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NO.5 What is required to manage an XIV system Gen3 with IBM Systems Director?
A. VAAI
B. Host Attachment Kit
C. MIB file for the XIV
D. Embedded CIMOM for the XIV
Answer: C

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NO.6 On an XIV system, how can the servers with the heaviest I/O in real time be identified?
A. XIV Top
B. state_list
C. host_list/s io
D. Statistics in the XIV GUI
Answer: A

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NO.7 What is the benefit of the IBM XIV Storage Management Console for the VMware vCenter plug-in?
A. integrates XIV volume allocation to VMware datastores
B. integrates VMware datastore creation into the XIV GUI
C. automates VMware datastore failover between XIV systems
D. enables the VMware vCenter console to manage XIV replication
Answer: A

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NO.8 What two recommendations are considered best practice when using an XIV system with VMware
ESX4.1? (Select two)
A. Use larger LUNs instead of LVM extents.
B. Always ensure Async mirroring is employed.
C. Always use the fixed path routing selection.
D. Always use round-robin path routing selection.
E. Always use the latest manufacturer's HBA drivers with the VMware OS
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which features best match the XIV system's hardware benefits?
A. Automatic tiering and scalability
B. Massive parallelism and scalability
C. Scalability and RAID implementation
D. Massive parallelism and hot spot management
Answer: B

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NO.10 What are two benefits of the XIV system's storage virtualization architecture? (Select two)
A. Hardware redundancy
B. Dynamic rate adaption
C. Online data migration
D. Preserves server connectivity
E. Differential snapshot capability
Answer: C,E

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NO.11 A technical specialist needs the IBM approved checklist to provide an IBM Technical Delivery
Assessment (TDA). Where is this checklist located?
A. IBM Techline
B. Solution Assurance Library
C. In the box of the new equipment
D. It is provided when the unit is registered
Answer: B

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NO.12 In an XIV system Gen3, what is the maximum number of inactive modules with Capacity on Demand
(CoD) enabled?
A. 6
B. 9
C. 3
D. 7
Answer: C

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NO.13 On an XIV system, what is an effect on the volumes within a storage pool with default settings when
the hard capacity limit is reached?
A. All volumes within the pool immediately go offline
B. All volumes within the pool enter the Read Only state
C. The space reclamation process automatically expands the pool
D. Hard capacity is automatically allocated from alternative pools
Answer: B

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NO.14 How many more iSCSI ports does a 10 module XIV system Gen3 Model 114 have than a 10 module
XIV system Model A14?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.15 A customer wants to use an XIV system to replace legacy storage for a Microsoft Exchange
environment, and is concerned about backup windows.
Which option would solve this concern?
A. Consistency groups and full volume copies
B. XIV snapshot technology and FlashCopy Manager
C. XIV snapshot technology with iSCSI replication
D. Utilize Quality of Service performance classes
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which XIV system feature enables proactive notification to the IBM service center?
A. Call Home
B. SNMP traps
C. Remote Support
D. XIV Remote Service Center
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the standard warranty period for an XIV system Gen3 2812-114?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years
Answer: C

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NO.18 A customer has 40 hosts, each with a 1 TB data volume. All hosts are less than 20% utilized. As part of
an XIV consolidation, all host data volumes will be copied using a standard file copy tool.
In order to ensure data integrity, how much hard capacity should be allocated on the XIV system?
A. 8 TB
B. 16 TB
C. 32 TB
D. 40 TB
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which sophisticated method distributes data on all drives in an XIV system?
A. Pseudo-random algorithm
B. Non-linear data algorithm
C. Pattern of non-random blocks
D. Sequential distribution of data
Answer: A

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NO.20 Compared to other IBM storage offerings, which of the following is unique functionality on an XIV
system?
A. automated load balancing
B. eliminates storage tiering
C. support for remote monitoring
D. easy-to-use graphical user interface
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N11

Exam Name: IBM (IBM InfoSphere Change Data Capture Technical Mastery Test v2 )

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NO.1 CDC guarantees data integrity by using two-phase commit operation between ____________.
A. source tables and source metadata
B. target tables and target metadata
C. source tables and target Tables
D. source metadata and target metadata
Answer: B

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NO.2 What happens when a new CDC subscription is created while database logging is turned off at the
source?
A. The CDC instance cannot be connected
B. The datastore cannot be created or connected
C. The subscription that uses the source datastore cannot be created
D. When the subscription is started using the Management Console, the replication will not succeed.
Answer: D

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NO.3 The default port number 10101 assigned to Access Server is ________________.
A. a fixed value pre-assigned by the software that can never be changed
B. a fixed value assigned by users at the time of installing the software
C. automatically assigned based on the license key
D. updatable by editing the Management Console properties
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following will be a valid SOURCE for "InfoSphere Change Data Capture (CDC) for Oracle
Triggers".?
A. Local Oracle databases running on any supported platform
B. Remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
C. Both local and remote Oracle databases running on any supported platform
D. Heterogeneous databases running on any supported platform
Answer: A

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NO.5 What additional software is needed to develop and compile your own Java User Exits in CDC?
A. Microsoft Visual C++ compiler
B. JDK only
C. Both JRE and JDK
D. No additional software is required
Answer: B

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Exam Code: 000-N05

Exam Name: IBM (IBM Commerce Solutions Supply Chain Mgmt Technical Mastery Test v1 )

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NO.1 TMS has a collaborative network of the following:
A. Carrier
B. Vendor
C. Customer
D. Both A and B.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Shipments from a Vendor/Supplier or Customer (Return) location, direct to Plant, Distribution Center,
Warehouse, Customer, etc. are examples of which of the following movement types?
A. Inbound Shipments
B. Outbound Shipments
C. Interplant Shipments
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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NO.3 TMS can be used to manage which of the following transportation modes?
A. Truckload
B. Less than truckload (LTL)
C. Intermodal
D. All of the above.
Answer: D

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